Border Patrol Agent

Archive for January, 2012

Border Patrol Nothing New to National Guard

Almost 1,100 National Guard members are on duty on the Southwest border performing a mission that is very familiar to many of them, a Guard official said today.

“This (mission) is not really unique,” Jack Harrison, the director of communications for the National Guard Bureau told participants in a DoD Bloggers Roundtable. “The National Guard has been involved at the Southwest border for two decades.”

During that time, National Guard members have worked in the counterdrug program in California, Arizona, New Mexico and Texas. “Above and beyond the 1,200 authorized for this mission, there are over 350 counterdrug personnel (in these states) doing that mission,” Harrison said.

Almost 6,000 Guard members from around the country were deployed in support of Operation Jump Start, a two-year mission that ended in 2008.

“So, this is not new,” Harrison said.

Many of the Guard members, who have volunteered for the current border mission, also have overseas deployment experience. “And yes, those experiences are certainly useful for this mission,” Harrison said. “It is also why DHS requested the National Guard’s support on the border … they recognize that level of experience.”

Harrison said the Guard will act as “extra eyes and ears” for Customs and Border Protection and Immigration and Customs Enforcement agents during the one-year mission. They will provide entry identification and criminal analysis support to these agencies.

Neither mission requires direct law enforcement activates, Harrison said. “They will be armed, but that will be more for self-protection than anything else.”

Of the 1,100 on duty, there are about 975 Army Guard members and 100 Air Guard members.

Harrison said these Guard members volunteered for this mission and were not called up as part of a unit.

Each state is using volunteers from within the state. “There are no units or individuals from outside those four states being called in to help in those four states,” Harrison said.

The incremental deployment of Guard members began on July 1, and the one-year mission includes training time, “boots on the ground” time and the ramp down at the end of the mission.

The training can take from two to three weeks and focuses on the agencies’ tactics and procedures as well as any equipment that may be used during the mission.

Harrison said this is a federally funded mission, but it is not federally commanded. “The governor and the adjutant general in each of these four states maintain command and control over each person on duty,” he said. “They control the flow of the forces and the numbers of forces on duty … and they will maintain that level of control throughout the mission.”

He added that the total funding authorized for this mission for up to 1,200 Guardsmen for up to one year is $135 million.

The states cannot activate more than 1,200, but they could use fewer, Harrison said adding, “that would be up to each state.”

Of the almost 1,100 currently on duty, there are about 300 in California, 450 in Arizona, 90 in New Mexico and 225 in Texas.

“We take this mission very seriously,” Harrison said. “The president has asked us to support this mission, while CBP and ICE hire new agents. Everything is going as we expected it to go, and we are on track for up to 1,200 people.”

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National Guard

The U.S. border with Mexico here is flat. There is no river between the two countries, and the Yuma Desert stretches to the east.

But the borderland terrain is considerably different in other communities that LTG H Steven Blum, chief of the National Guard Bureau, and senior federal officials visited during a late November trip along the 1,300-mile border from California to Texas.

The National Guard has provided up to 6,000 Citizen-Soldiers and Airmen for Operation Jump Start. President George W. Bush announced the Guard’s two-year commitment to helping the Border Patrol secure the border in May.

When it comes to policing this mercurial border, one size does not fit all, Blum said.

“It’s a complex operation,” said Craig Duehring, principal deputy assistant secretary of defense for Reserve Affairs, who accompanied Blum on the trip. “I certainly came with some misconceptions that one size fits all, that what we were going to do was just put a fence across from Point A to Point B, and then it would all be done. Now I’m starting to realize that’s simply not the case.”

The complexities start with the varied geography of the border itself. As the geography changes, so do the challenges in controlling it. In California, San Diego’s southern suburbs are separated from Tijuana, Mexico, by a trio of fences designed to “encourage” people to use the international port of entry for travel and trade.

From sea level in San Diego, the border climbs to 4,180 feet into the California mountains. Weather there can include ice and snow, though east in El Centro, Calif., agents encounter 120-degree temperatures.

In Nogales, Ariz., the population of the Mexican city of the same name dwarfs the U.S. community. Rugged ridges stretch along the border which in some places is marked by a high fence built from old aircraft landing mats and in others by a single strand of barbed wire or by nothing at all.

In 180 particularly challenging miles from Columbus, N.M., to El Paso, Texas, there are no ridges, no fence and no river. A single dirt track marks the international line across the high desert. On the U.S. side, a dearth of north-south roads forces Border Patrol agents and National Guard troops to travel dozens of miles just to get to their duty stations.

“It is 180 miles of nothingness,” said Robert Gilbert, chief patrol agent for the Border Patrol’s El Paso sector. “180 miles of vast, wide-open land 40 miles from anything.”

From El Paso to the Gulf of Mexico, the Rio Grande runs sometimes wide, sometimes strong, always a natural barrier, but not always an effective one.

“Within El Paso, the biggest issue is that we don’t have the Rio Grande as an obstacle,” Gilbert said. “It’s nothing but a trickle up here. It doesn’t give us that level of deterrence that they have downriver.”

“There are nine separate Border Patrol sectors, and four states are involved,” he said. “None of the sectors are identical or even similar in many cases, so each one has to be dealt with in its own manner.”

Sectors have varied demographics, geography and personalities, he said.

Along some of the 1,300 miles, engineers can pour concrete fence foundations. In other areas, such as the Arizona desert, the sand is so fine that attempting to dig a foundation trench is a lost cause, and different construction techniques must be used.

“The barriers and the tactical infrastructure you need to be effective in open desert is quite different, and your reaction time is quite different than it is in an urban area such as El Paso,” Blum said. “Each sector has to adapt its techniques and its procedures and balance its forces – its Border Patrol agents and National Guard members – to deliver the best capability.”

“It’s important for people – especially in the policy business – to realize the difficulties,” Duehring said. “I come away from this with two major changes in my attitude. That is the amount of work that has been done, which you can quantify, and the other thing is the complexity of the challenge.”

“We’ve got a lot of different terrain across the 1,300 miles of the border,” said Buzz Jacobs, director of immigration security policy for the White House Homeland Security Council. “Where some people offer simple solutions to securing the border, it’s actually more complex. It’s going to require a lot of time, hard work and a national effort to get this border under control.”

The National Guard has been leading that national effort by providing support to the Border Patrol in their mission to gain operational control of the entire border. National Guard members provide administrative support, act as the Border Patrol’s eyes and ears, and fill a wide variety of other roles, though they are not directly involved in apprehending suspected illegal aliens.

“In the San Diego Sector alone, there have been over 2,500 additional apprehensions as a result of the extra eyes and ears,” said Maj. Gen. William Wade, adjutant general of the California National Guard.

Operation Jump Start has also had an unintended consequence, Blum said.

“We’ve got 44 states right now that are sending troops down here,” he said. “They are coming from places where the conversation around the dinner table during a family meal rarely included the southwest border.”

That is now changing in Tennessee, West Virginia, Kentucky, Nebraska and dozens of other states, Blum said.

“The unintended consequences of bringing people in from all over the country to perform this mission is that now we’re starting to see an awareness for this issue on our borders and the need to get control of these borders, not to shut them down,” he added.

“Our country will be stronger for this experience,” Duehring added. “People throughout our nation will appreciate the challenge that the Border Patrol faces every single day.”

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National Guard, Border Patrol Team Up

Border Patrol agents and members of the National Guard coordinated with Mexican authorities to prevent a drug smuggling attempt Jan. 21 near Naco, Ariz.

Mexican officials responded and seized approximately 45 pounds of marijuana, a sport utility vehicle, and a catapult capable of launching contraband into the U.S.

As part of the Sept. 8 deployment of 504 National Guard personnel to the Tucson Sector, National Guard troops assigned to operate the remote video surveillance system at the Naco station observed several individuals just south of the international boundary fence preparing a catapult.

Border Patrol agents assigned to the International Liaison Unit contacted Mexican authorities who responded to the area and disrupted the catapult operation. Camera operators observed individuals fleeing the area, presumably to avoid apprehension.

“The Border Patrol’s partnerships with Mexican authorities, the National Guard and the public enhance our efforts to address and disrupt the organized drug trafficking threat at the border and serves to degrade the capabilities of transnational criminal organizations,” Associate Chief Jose Cruz said.

“With their continued support and that of the public, we will continue to more effectively address threats before they cross the International Boundary.”

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Sample Logical Reasoning Test Answers

1. Correct Answer:

D) none of the teams are exempt from traveling to any duty location within the sector

This question is about the canine teams in Agent Smith’s sector.
According to the last sentence in the paragraph, all of the canine
teams must be available to travel to any duty station within the sector.
This is equivalent to saying that none of the teams are exempt from
traveling to any duty location within the sector, Response D.
Responses B and C contradict the information in the last sentence.
The third sentence in the paragraph informs us that most teams are
stationed along the border. Responses A and E contradict this
information.

2. Correct Answer:

C) if special funding is not needed from the city council, then it is not a holiday weekend

Combining the information in the last two sentences we know that if
it is a holiday weekend, then special funding is needed from the city
council (due to assigning additional staff to duty). Accordingly, if
special funding is not needed, then it must not be a holiday weekend;
otherwise, special funding would be needed.
Responses A and E are false because they contradict the information
in the paragraph. Responses B and D might be true, but they are not
fully supported by the paragraph.

3. Correct Answer:

B) all cross border tunnels are used for narcotics smuggling

This is an example of a test question with a negative lead statement.
It asks for the conclusion that is NOT supported by the paragraph.
That means that four of the statements are valid conclusions based on
the paragraph while one is not. In this case, Response B is invalid.
The paragraph says that “most” cross border tunnels are used for
smuggling narcotics, but Response B says that “all” cross border
tunnels are used for smuggling narcotics.
Responses C and D are based on the information that most cross
border tunnels are crudely constructed. Response C is based on the
information that most cross border tunnels are used to smuggle
narcotics. Finally, Response E combines all information about the
tunnels being crudely constructed and used for smuggling narcotics.

4. Correct Answer:

A) if P.C. loses her U.S. citizenship without being denaturalized, then she must have expatriated

This question concerns a situation where there are two ways for
naturalized U.S. citizens to lose U.S. citizenship, either by
expatriation or denaturalization. In Response A, the situation is
considered in which P.C. has lost her U.S. citizenship without being
denaturalized. Expatriation is the only option remaining to explain
the loss of U.S. citizenship.
Responses B and E are invalid because they fail to consider that there
is more than one way for P.C. to lose U.S. citizenship. Responses C
and D are about situations in which P.C. may or may not be
denaturalized. These two responses are invalid because they fail to
consider that there are several possible reasons for denaturalization.

5. Correct Answer:

B) no one ineligible to apply for permanent resident status was a national of Vietnam who was paroled into the United States through the Orderly Departure Program

This paragraph is mainly about the group of Vietnamese Nationals
who were paroled into the United States under the Orderly Departure
Program with indefinite immigration status. In 2003, a new rule
made everyone in this group of Vietnamese Nationals (and others)
eligible to apply for permanent resident status. Accordingly, anyone
who is not eligible to apply for permanent resident status must not be
part of this group of Vietnamese Nationals, which is equivalent to
Response B.
Responses A and C fail to recognize that others, such as nationals of
Cambodia, were also eligible to apply for permanent resident status.
Responses D and E contradict the information that everyone in the
group of Vietnamese Nationals who were paroled into the United
States under the Orderly Departure Program was eligible to apply for
permanent resident status.

6. Correct Answer:

C) if an applicant’s documentation appears to be true and relevant to an employer, the employer must refuse acceptance and ask for other documentation from the Government’s list of acceptable documents

This question asks for the response option that CANNOT be validly
concluded from the information in the paragraph. The only response
option that cannot be validly concluded is Response C. Response C
is invalid because the paragraph does not say that employers must
refuse acceptance of documentation that appears to be true and
relevant.

Responses B and E are valid based on the information in the first
sentence. Response A is valid based on the information in the second
sentence that employers cannot change documentation requirements.
Response D is valid based on the information in the last sentence
stating that employers may request different documentation when
they believe the documentation submitted appears to be altered.

7. Correct Answer:

A) all of the employees from Honduras were working legally

The correct answer is A. The last sentence of the paragraph states
that none of the illegal workers were from Honduras, which is
equivalent to saying that none of the employees from Honduras were
working illegally. Given that none were working illegally, it must be
the case that all were working legally.

From the information in the paragraph, we know that all of the female
employees were working legally and that all of the employees from
Honduras were working legally. However, there is insufficient
information to determine how many of the female employees were
from Honduras. Therefore, Responses C, D, and E cannot be validly
concluded. Response B contradicts the information that all of the
female employees were working legally.
8. Correct Answer:

C) was not born in the United States to U.S. citizens parents

According to the paragraph, there are two ways of acquiring U.S.
citizenship at birth. Also, the paragraph states that J.B. did not
acquire U.S. citizenship at birth. Therefore, the only conclusion that
can be validly drawn is that J.B. did not meet either of the two
conditions for acquiring U.S. citizenship at birth. Specifically, J.B.
was not born in the United States to U.S. citizen parents, and J.B. was
not born overseas to U.S. citizen parents who previously lived in the
United States for the required period of time. Any other conclusion is
not supported by the information in the paragraph.

9. Correct Answer:

E) only sector canine handlers have the authority to issue citations for misdemeanor marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in
their presence

Question 9 is a negative lead item, so the correct response is the only
response option that CANNOT be validly concluded. The first
sentence states that all state peace officers have authority to issue
certain drug-related citations. Response E is invalid because it says
that only sector canine handlers have such authority.

The first sentence states that all state peace officers have authority to
issue certain drug-related citations; therefore, at least some who have
authority to issue certain drug-related citations must be peace
officers, Response A. The last sentence states that all sector canine
handlers are state peace officers; therefore, all sector canine handlers
have authority to issue certain drug-related citations because the
handlers are state peace officers, Response B. Moreover, given that
all sector canine handlers have authority to issue certain drug-related
citations, it must be the case that at least some individuals who have
authority to issue certain drug-related citations are sector canine
handlers, Response C. Finally, given that all sector canine handlers
have authority to issue certain drug-related citations, it must be the
case that no sector canine handlers lack authority to issue certain
drug-related citations, Response D.

10. Correct Answer:

E) if C.P. has veterans’ preference, then C.P. is eligible to apply for any open civil service examination

The fourth sentence in the paragraph states that when an applicant has
veteran’s preference, the applicant has permanent reinstatement
eligibility. The second sentence states that an applicant with
reinstatement eligibility is eligible to apply for any civil service
examination. Therefore, if an applicant has veteran’s preference, the
applicant is eligible to apply for any civil service examination due to
having reinstatement eligibility. Accordingly, Response E is valid
because C.P. will be eligible to apply for any open civil service
examination if C.P. has veterans’ preference.

Responses A, B, C, and D are invalid because they make assumptions
which cannot be supported by the information in the paragraph.
Response B assumes that the only two ways of attaining
reinstatement eligibility is to have veteran’s preference or three years
creditable service. Response C assumes that applicants are allowed
to apply for open civil service examinations and jobs open only to
status candidates only when applicants have reinstatement eligibility.
Responses A and D assume that applicants are allowed to apply for
open civil service examinations and jobs open only to status
candidates when and only when applicants have veteran’s preference
or three years creditable service.

11. Correct Answer:

D) if Officer Stoler must physically force entry into the home, then Officer Stoler is not required to ensure that the home is secure upon
leaving

This question is a negative lead question, so the correct response is
the only response option that CANNOT be validly concluded. The
first sentence in the paragraph states that when officers must
physically force entry into a home, the officers are required to ensure
that the home is in a secure condition when the officers leave.
Response D contradicts this information in saying that Officer Stoler
is not required to leave the home in a secure condition. Thus,
Response D is the correct response.

Response A is valid and follows from the information in the fourth
sentence. Responses B and E are valid and follow from the
information in the first sentence. Response C follows from the
information in the third sentence and is valid.

12. Correct Answer:

D) all of the vehicles that did not contain bundles of marijuana were registered

The fourth sentence contains the information that all of the
unregistered vehicles contained bundles of marijuana. Accordingly,
if a vehicle did not contain bundles of marijuana, it could not be one
of the unregistered vehicles since all unregistered vehicles contained
marijuana. Therefore, it can be deduced that all of the vehicles that
did not contain bundles of marijuana were registered.

Response A contradicts the information in the last sentence.
Response B contradicts the information in the fourth sentence.
Response C assumes that only unregistered contained bundles of
marijuana, but there is insufficient information to make that
conclusion. Response E assumes that some of the registered vehicles
also contained bundles of marijuana, but there is insufficient
information to make that conclusion.

13. Correct Answer:

C) green cards are the only work authorization documents that expire after 10 years

This question is a negative lead question, so the correct response is
the only response option that CANNOT be validly concluded.
Response C is invalid because it assumes from the information that
all green cards are authorization documents that expire after 10 years
that green cards are the ONLY work authorization documents that
expire after 10 years.

The fourth sentence states that all green card applicants must apply in
person; therefore, an application that does not require applicants to
apply in person cannot be a green card application, Response A.
Response B is valid and is based on the information in the third
sentence. The second sentence establishes that green cards have an
expiration date, so Response D is valid. The last sentence says that
sometimes it takes a year to receive a new green card, so Response E
is valid.

Based on the information in the first sentence, if R.G. is not an
undocumented alien, then R.G. has not violated his/her nonimmigrant status. Based on the information in the second sentence, if
R.G. has not violated his/her non-immigrant status, then R.G. has not
accepted unauthorized employment. Therefore, if R.G. is not an
undocumented alien, the R.G. has not accepted unauthorized
employment, Response E.

14. Correct Answer:

E) if R.G. is not an undocumented alien, then R.G. has not accepted unauthorized employment

Responses A and D are invalid because it cannot be determined
whether or not R.G. entered the United States illegally based only on
the information that R.G. is an undocumented alien because R.G. may
have violated his/her non-immigrant status. Response C is invalid
because R.G. may be an undocumented alien for several different
reasons even if R.G. did not remain in the United States longer than
permitted. Likewise, Response B is invalid because R.G. could have
committed a violation other than accepting unauthorized employment
that resulted in violation of non-immigrant status.

15. Correct Answer:

A) H.B.’s departure is not voluntary if H.B.’s passport is allowed to be returned to H.B.

This question is a negative lead question, so the correct response is
the only response option that CANNOT be validly concluded.
According to the third sentence, if H.B.’s departure is voluntary, then
the passport is allowed to be returned to H.B. Based on this
information, Response A is invalid.
Responses C and D are both valid and are supported by the
information in the third sentence that the passport is allowed to be
returned to H.B. if H.B.’s departure is voluntary. Responses B and E
are valid and are supported by the information in the second sentence
that H.B.’s passport will be returned to the issuing government if
H.B. is being “removed.”

The third sentence says that almost all arrestees are unable to see after
being sprayed with OC. Accordingly, few arrestees are able to see
after being sprayed with OC, Response B.

16. Correct Answer:

B) few arrestees are able to see after being sprayed with OC

Response A is false because, according to the first sentence, OC is an
example of a tool that causes a burning sensation of the eyes but is
not deadly force. Sentences four and five do not say that the agencies
who have experienced fewer allegations of use of excessive force are
the same agencies that have reported a reduction in officer and
arrestee injuries, thus Response C is invalid. Response D is false
because it contradicts the information in the fourth sentence that some
agencies using OC have experienced fewer allegations. Finally, the
first sentence states that OC is an effective, non-lethal tool for violent
or threatening arrestees, but it does not state that OC is the only tool
(Response E).

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Sample Logical Reasoning Test

Some questions will ask you to select the only answer that can be validly concluded from the
paragraph. These questions include a paragraph followed by five response options. Preceding
the five response options will be the phrase “From the information given above, it can be validly
concluded that.” In other questions you may be asked to select the only answer that cannot be
validly concluded from the paragraph. These questions include a paragraph followed by five
response options. Preceding the five response options will be the phrase “From the information
given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that.”

You must use only the information provided in the paragraph, without using any outside
information whatsoever.

It is suggested that you take no more than 32 minutes to complete questions 1 through 16. The
questions on this test will not be on the real test, but the real questions will be similar in form
and difficulty to these. The explanations for the correct and incorrect responses are found in the
last section.

1. Agent Smith is in charge of all of the canine teams in his sector. Fifteen canine teams are
stationed in his sector. Most of the canine teams are located at stations along the border.
Several canine teams are located away from the border in large urban areas. All of the teams
must be available to travel to any duty station within the sector.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, in Agent Smith’s sector,

A) most of the canine teams are located away from the border in large urban areas
B) only teams located along the border must be available to travel to any duty station within
the sector
C) teams in urban areas do not need to be available to travel to other duty stations within the
sector
D) none of the teams are exempt from traveling to any duty location within the sector
E) few of the canine teams are located at stations along the border

2. The Chief of Police strives to provide quality service to the community while using resources
efficiently. Accordingly, the Chief must take into account several factors when allocating
resources. For example, if it is a holiday weekend, additional staff are assigned to duty.
However, if additional staff are assigned to duty, special funding is needed from the city
council.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) if it is a holiday weekend, then special funding is not needed from the city council
B) if it is not a holiday weekend, then special funding is needed from the city council
C) if special funding is not needed from the city council, then it is not a holiday weekend
D) if special funding is needed from the city council, then it is a holiday weekend
E) if special funding is not needed from the city council, then it is a holiday weekend

3. Several different means of smuggling, such as cross-border tunnels, are used to bring
narcotics, individuals, and contraband into the United States. Cross-border tunnels can be
found all along the land border of the United States. They vary significantly in size and
complexity of construction, although most are crudely constructed. Further, most crossborder tunnels are used for smuggling narcotics, although illegal aliens and other contraband
have also been smuggled using tunnels.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) most cross-border tunnels are not skillfully constructed
B) all cross-border tunnels are used for narcotics smuggling
C) at least some cross-border tunnels are not free from narcotics smuggling
D) at least some of the means used for narcotics smuggling are cross-border tunnels
E) at least some means used for narcotics smuggling involve crudely constructed tunnels

4. Naturalized U.S. citizens can lose their U.S. citizenship if and only if they expatriate or are
denaturalized. Misrepresentation on a legal permanent residence application, certain crimes,
and leaving the United States within one year of naturalization to establish permanent
residence elsewhere are all grounds for denaturalization. P.C. is a naturalized U.S. citizen.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) if P.C. loses her U.S. citizenship without being denaturalized, then she must have
expatriated
B) if P.C. does not expatriate, then she cannot lose her U.S. citizenship
C) if P.C. is denaturalized, then she must have made a misrepresentation on her legal
permanent residence application
D) if P.C. has committed no crimes, then she cannot be denaturalized
E) P.C. cannot lose her U.S. citizenship without being denaturalized

5. Following the Vietnam War, many people from Southeast Asia were paroled into the United
States with an indefinite immigration status. In 2003, a new rule was developed to allow for
adjustment of immigration status for some of these people. According to the new rule, all
nationals of Vietnam (and some others, for example, nationals of Cambodia) who were
paroled into the United States through the Orderly Departure Program were eligible to apply
for permanent resident status.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, based on the new rule of
2003,

A) everyone eligible to apply for permanent resident status is a national of Vietnam who was
paroled into the United States through the Orderly Departure Program
B) no one ineligible to apply for permanent resident status was a national of Vietnam who
was paroled into the United States through the Orderly Departure Program
C) only nationals of Vietnam who were paroled into the United States through the Orderly
Departure Program were eligible to apply for permanent resident status
D) some nationals of Vietnam who were paroled into the United States through the Orderly
Departure Program were ineligible to apply for permanent resident status
E) some of those who were ineligible to apply for permanent resident status were nationals
of Vietnam who were paroled into the United States through the Orderly Departure
Program

6. An employer is permitted to hire a new employee only if the employer is able to verify that
the applicant’s employment documentation establishes both of the following: 1) the applicant
is authorized to work in the United States and 2) the applicant who presents the employment
authorization document is the person to whom the documentation was issued. An employer
cannot request that an applicant provide more or different documents than required. If the
documentation appears false or unrelated, employers must refuse acceptance and ask for
other documentation from the Government’s list of acceptable documents.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) no employer is permitted to limit which documents it will accept for verification of
employment authorization
B) if an employer cannot verify that an applicant is authorized to work, then the employer is
not permitted to hire the applicant
C) if an applicant’s documentation appears to be true and relevant to an employer, the
employer must refuse acceptance and ask for other documentation from the
Government’s list of acceptable documents
D) an employer may request different employment documentation if the provided
documentation appears to be altered
E) if an applicant is permitted to be hired, then the applicant has verifiable employment
authorization

57. Although the owner of a certain farm said that all her Central American (for example,
Salvadoran and Honduran) workers were working legally, Border Patrol Agents discovered
that many of the farm’s employees were not authorized to work in the United States. After
checking the employees’ documentation, Border Patrol Agents discovered that all of the
female employees were working in the United States legally and none of the illegal workers
were from Honduras.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, concerning the
employees on this farm,

A) all of the employees from Honduras were working legally
B) some of the women were illegal workers
C) none of the employees from Honduras were female
D) some of the female employees were from Honduras
E) all of the Salvadoran employees were women

8. The two ways of acquiring U.S. citizenship at birth are by place of birth and inheritance from
U.S. citizen parents. Any child born in the United States while under American jurisdiction
is a U.S. citizen at birth. Because foreign ambassadors are not subject to American
jurisdiction, children born in the United States to foreign ambassadors do not obtain
U.S. citizenship at birth. Children born overseas to U.S. citizen parents derive
U.S. citizenship at birth, as long as the parents previously lived in the United States for a
sufficient period of time. All others must naturalize to become citizens. J.B. was not a
U.S. citizen at birth.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that J.B.,

A) was born in the United States
B) was born overseas to U.S. citizen parents
C) was not born in the United States to U.S. citizen parents
D) was not born overseas to U.S. citizen parents
E) was born to U.S. citizen parents

69. In a certain border state, all state peace officers have the authority to issue state citations for
misdemeanor marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence. Early last
year, a certain Border Patrol Sector in the state began a new operation with state police.
Under this operation, all sector canine handlers were cross-designated as state peace officers.
From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that, in the border state
discussed above,

A) at least some law enforcement officers who can issue citations for misdemeanor
marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence are state peace officers
B) all sector canine handlers have the authority to issue state citations for misdemeanor
marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence
C) at least some individuals who have the authority to issue citations for misdemeanor
marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence are sector canine
handlers
D) no sector canine handlers lack the authority to issue state citations for misdemeanor
marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence
E) only sector canine handlers have the authority to issue citations for misdemeanor
marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence

10. Reinstatement allows a former Federal employee to reenter the Federal competitive service
workforce without competing with the public in a civil service examination. If an applicant
has reinstatement eligibility, the applicant is eligible to apply for any open civil service
examination, as well as for Federal jobs open only to Federal employees. There is no time
limit on reinstatement eligibility in certain cases. For example, if an applicant has veterans’
preference or has acquired Federal career tenure by completing three years of substantially
continuous creditable service, the applicant has permanent reinstatement eligibility.
C.P. formerly worked in the Federal competitive service workforce.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) if C.P. has neither three years continuous creditable service nor veterans’ preference, then
C.P. cannot apply for a job open only to status candidates
B) if C.P. has permanent reinstatement eligibility, then C.P. must have veterans’ preference
or three years of continuous creditable service
C) if C.P. is not reinstatement eligible, then C.P. is not eligible to apply for any open civil
service examination or job open only to status candidates
D) if C.P. is eligible to apply for any open civil service examination or job open only to
status candidates, then C.P. must have veterans’ preference or three years of continuous
creditable service
E) if C.P. has veterans’ preference, then C.P. is eligible to apply for any open civil service
examination

11. When officers must physically force entry into a home, they are required to ensure that the
home is in a secure condition when they leave. Failure to secure the home leaves the officers
liable for loss of items from the home and/or damage to the home that results from leaving
the property unsecured. It is legal to break down doors in order to gain entry, if that degree
of force is determined by an officer to be necessary. If an officer forces entry, the officer is
required to take measures to minimize damage to the property. Officer Stoler needs to gain
entry into a suspect’s home.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) Officer Stoler is required to minimize damage to the home if Officer Stoler forces entry
B) if Officer Stoler is not required to ensure that the home is secure upon leaving, then
Officer Stoler did not force entry into the home
C) if Officer Stoler forces entry and fails to secure the home, Officer Stoler may be liable for
loss of items resulting from leaving the home unsecured
D) if Officer Stoler must physically force entry into the home, then Officer Stoler is not
required to ensure that the home is secure upon leaving
E) Officer Stoler will be required to secure the home unless Officer Stoler does not force
entry

12. Recently, Border Patrol agents received leads from informants about possible illegal activity
at La Rosita Park. When agents arrived at the park, they drove through the parking lots,
looking for individuals and vehicles matching their leads. The Agents examined several
suspicious vehicles, including many unregistered vehicles. All of the unregistered vehicles
contained bundles of marijuana. No arrests have been made in connection with this incident.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) several arrests have been made in connection with this incident
B) some of the vehicles that did not contain bundles of marijuana were unregistered
C) all of the vehicles that contained bundles of marijuana were unregistered
D) all of the vehicles that did not contain bundles of marijuana were registered
E) some of the vehicles that contained bundles of marijuana were registered

13. Green cards authorize aliens to work in the United States. The cards have a ten-year
expiration period. Application for a renewal of a green card can be made up to six months in
advance of expiration. In order to apply for renewal of a green card, the applicant is required
to apply in person and bring his or her current green card, application, fee, and new photos.
It may take one year for applicants to receive new green cards, but temporary documents are
provided.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) an application that does not require the applicant to apply in person cannot be a renewal
application for a green card
B) application for a replacement green card cannot be made more than six months in
advance of expiration
C) green cards are the only work authorization documents that expire after 10 years
D) it is not the case that some green cards never expire
E) some renewed green cards are not available in less than one year

14. If a non-immigrant alien (for example, a tourist) enters the United States illegally or enters
legally but violates his or her non-immigrant status, the alien is considered to be an
undocumented alien. If an alien accepts unauthorized employment, remains longer than
permitted, or commits one of several other violations, the alien has violated his or her nonimmigrant status. Some of these undocumented aliens purchase counterfeit documents or
assume another person’s identity by using fraudulently obtained genuine documents. R.G. is
a non-immigrant alien who is living in the United States.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) if R.G. is an undocumented alien, then R.G. must have entered the United States illegally
B) if R.G. has violated non-immigrant status but has not remained in the United States
longer than permitted, then R.G. has accepted unauthorized employment
C) if R.G. has not remained in the United States longer than permitted, R.G. is not an
undocumented alien
D) if R.G. is an undocumented alien, then R.G. entered the United States legally
E) if R.G. is not an undocumented alien, then R.G. has not accepted unauthorized
employment

15. When an illegal alien is being “removed,” the alien’s passport in U.S. Government
possession is returned to the issuing government, not to the illegal alien. If the illegal alien’s
departure is voluntary, the passport is allowed to be returned to the alien. The U.S.
Government holds the passport of H.B., an illegal alien who must leave the country.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) H.B.’s departure is not voluntary if H.B.’s passport is allowed to be returned to H.B.
B) if H.B.’s passport is not returned to the issuing government upon H.B.’s departure, then
H.B. is not being removed
C) H.B.’s departure is not voluntary unless the passport is allowed to be returned to H.B.
D) if H.B.’s passport is not allowed to be returned to H.B., then H.B.’s departure is not
voluntary
E) if H.B. is being removed, then H.B.’s passport is to be returned to the issuing government

16. Oleoresin capsicum (OC), or “pepper spray,” is an effective law enforcement tool for
incapacitating violent or threatening arrestees without using deadly force. Pepper spray
causes a burning sensation of the eyes and skin and tearing and swelling of the eyes. Almost
all arrestees are unable to see after being sprayed with OC. Some law enforcement agencies
that have adopted OC sprays have fewer allegations of use of excessive force. Many law
enforcement agencies have reported a reduction in officer and arrestee injuries as a result of
the introduction of OC sprays.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) any use of a law enforcement tool that causes a burning sensation of the eyes is
considered to be the use of deadly force
B) few arrestees are able to see after being sprayed with OC
C) all law enforcement agencies which have reduced officer and arrestee injuries have also
reduced allegations of use of excessive force
D) no agencies that have adopted OC sprays have fewer allegations of use of excessive force
E) only pepper spray is an effective law enforcement tool for incapacitating violent or
threatening arrestees without using deadly force

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Glossary of Grammatical Terms

This glossary will be available to you during the actual test, but it is recommended that you study
the glossary before taking the test. The glossary contains basic grammatical concepts that apply
to English, Spanish, and the Artificial Language. The glossary contains fairly extensive and
comprehensive explanations of each grammatical concept. The explanations in the actual test
are not comprehensive. Consequently, it is particularly important that you study these
explanations very carefully.

Article: An article is a word that precedes a noun and determines whether it is a definite or
indefinite noun; for instance the book, an object.

Adjective: An adjective is a word used to modify a noun or pronoun (for example, intelligent
women). Generally, an adjective serves to answer questions such as: which, what kind of, how
many. For example, (1) “This book” would be the adjectival answer to the question “which
book?” (2) “a beautiful book” would be the adjectival answer to the question “what kind of
book?” and (3) “several days” would be the adjectival answer to the question “how many days?”
In English, adjectives have only one form, regardless of the type of noun they modify. More
specifically, whether a noun is feminine or masculine, singular or plural, the adjective used to
modify it remains the same; for example, the adjective strong is exactly the same when it refers
to one man, one woman, many women, or many men. By contrast, in both Spanish and the
Artificial Language, the ending of the adjective is different if the adjective is modifying a
singular masculine noun, a singular feminine noun, a plural feminine noun, or a plural masculine
noun.

Adverb: An adverb is a word used to modify a verb. For example, the sentence “It was
produced” could be modified to express where it was produced by saying “It was produced
locally.”

Generally, an adverb is used to answer the questions where (as in the example above), when (as
for example, “he comes frequently”), how (as for example, “she thinks logically”). Adverbs
sometimes are used to modify an adjective or another adverb. For example, in the sentence “She
has a really beautiful mind,” the adverb really modifies the adjective beautiful. In the sentence
“She thinks very logically,” the adverb very modifies the adverb logically. In the Artificial
Language the only adverbs used are those which modify verbs. In the Spanish language, as well
as in the English language, adverbs are used to modify verbs, adjectives, and other adverbs.
Gender: As a grammatical concept, gender refers to the classification of words according to
whether they are masculine, feminine, or neuter.

As stated above, Spanish takes masculine or feminine endings for nouns, adjectives, and articles.
The neuter form is used sometimes to express abstraction in a more emphatic manner. The
neuter form is NOT used in the Artificial Language. Consequently, it is very important for you
to remember that in the Artificial Language all nouns, adjectives, and articles take either a
masculine or a feminine ending according to whether the sentence refers to a male or female.
Also, all nouns and adjectives in the Artificial Language were conceived (for the sake of
simplicity) to be masculine. Thus, unless the feminine gender is specified in the sentence, the
masculine gender is used always.

Infinitive: An infinitive is the general, abstract form of a verb; for example, to look, to think, to
remember, to walk. Once the action expressed by a verb is attached to a specific subject (a
person, animal, or thing), then we say the verb is “conjugated,” or linked to that subject; for
example, “he/she thinks,” “the dog runs,” “the table broke.”

In contrast to the way that an infinitive in English is preceded by the word “to” (as in “to think”),
in the Artificial Language (and in Spanish), infinitives are defined by their suffix. In the version
of the Artificial Language used here, this ending (or suffix) is ker (in the actual test, the ending
will be different).

Noun: A noun is a word which names a person, place, thing, or abstraction; for example,
Lindsay, Chicago, tree, wisdom. A noun can refer to an individual (as in Lindsay, an individual
person, or Chicago, an individual place) or to a set (as in “all stones,” “all trees,” “all cities”).
Prefix: A prefix always occurs at the beginning of a word. It can be a single letter or a sequence
of letters; for example, amoral, illegal, dysfunctional.

A prefix is the opposite of a suffix, which always occurs at the end of a word, but both serve to
change the basic word in some way. For example, polite is the basic word (in this case an
adjective) to express the concept of behavior that conforms to accepted social norms, while
adding the prefix im and creating the word impolite transforms the word polite into its
contradictory concept. You should note that in the Artificial Language a prefix is used to create
a negative concept (see Rule 13). Such a rule mimics both Spanish and English, in both of which
negation is usually expressed by using a negative prefix.

Pronoun: A pronoun is a word used in place of a noun; for example, “she” instead of “Lindsay,”
“they” instead of “the guards,” “it” instead of “the stone,” “himself/herself” instead of “the
judge.”

In both English and Spanish there is a difference between a pronoun that stands for the subject of
an action (as in “He threw the stone,” meaning that Lindsay threw the stone), and a pronoun that
stands for the object of an action (as in “The stone was thrown at him,” meaning that the stone
was thrown at Lindsay). By contrast, in the Artificial Language used in this manual there is no
grammatical difference between he and him, both being yev. Remember, however, that in the
Artificial Language pronouns take feminine endings when the subject or object of the action is
feminine. Accordingly, in the version of the Artificial Language given in this manual, both she
(subject) and her (object) would be yevnef (i.e., yev plus the feminine suffix nef).

Suffix: A suffix always occurs at the end of a word. It can be a single letter or a sequence of
letters, for example, creamy, readable, nicely. Unlike prefixes, suffixes often change the “part of
speech” (i.e., the type of word). For example, in the case of creamy, the suffix y changes the
noun cream into the adjective creamy, and in the case of nicely, the suffix ly changes the
adjective nice into the adverb nicely.

In addition, suffixes are used to conjugate verbs (for example, to change the present tense into
the past tense: you walk, you walked) and to create the plural form of nouns (for example, boy,
boys). In Spanish, suffixes are used for the same purposes, but they are used for other purposes
too, such as creating plural forms for adjectives and changing the gender of a word.
In the Artificial Language, suffixes are used (1) to change the part of speech (for example, Rule
11 uses a suffix to change an adjective into an adverb), (2) to conjugate verbs (for example,
Rules 6 and 7 use suffixes to express the present and past tenses), and (3) to create the plural
form of nouns, pronouns, adjectives, and articles (Rule 2). In addition, the Artificial Language
mimics Spanish in using a suffix to express gender.

You should study all the rules on suffixes in the Artificial Language, and you should practice
using these rules, but you should NOT memorize them because (1) you will have them available
to you at all times during the actual test, and (2) in the actual test, some of the suffixes and
prefixes are different from the ones used in this practice test.

Verb: A verb is used to express either an action or a state of being. For example, “He prepared
dinner” expresses the action of making all preparations for dinner, while “He is a citizen”
expresses the state or condition of being a citizen.

A condition or “state of being” can be permanent or transitory. For example, “The agent’s horse
is a bay mare” expresses a permanent condition for the horse (being a bay mare), while “George
is at lunch” expresses a transitory condition for George (being at lunch). The Spanish language,
unlike English, has two different verbs to express permanent and transitory conditions, although
the Artificial Language is akin to English rather than to Spanish in its use of a single verb to
express any state of being.

When a verb is linked to a subject (i.e., “conjugated”) it changes from the abstract infinitive form
to a specific form such as a present tense or a past tense. The Artificial Language primarily uses
only two tenses: the simple past tense and the simple present tense in the indicative mood (see
Rules 6 and 7). (Verbs in the indicative mood express a real action or condition, whereas verbs
in the subjunctive mood express hypothetical actions or conditions. The subjunctive mood does
not exist in the Artificial Language, but it is very important in Spanish.)

You may find that the past participle is used in the test (see Rule 8). In that case, the present
perfect tense (they have crossed) and the past perfect tense (they had crossed) will be used in the
Artificial Language.

Be sure to apply the rules as directed in the test material. If no rule governing the past participle
is listed in the actual test material, then the past participle is treated as a simple past tense.

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Grammatical Rules for the Artificial Language

The grammatical rules given here are similar, but not identical, to those used in the ALT. Some
of the suffixes (word endings) and prefixes (additions to the beginning of a word) used in the
actual test differ from those used in the practice test.

During the actual test, you will have access to the rules at all times. Consequently, it is
important that you understand these rules, but it is not necessary that you memorize them. In
fact, memorizing them will hinder rather than help you, since there are differences between the
rules in the version of the Artificial Language that appears here and the one that appears in the
actual test.

You should note that the next part of this section contains a glossary of grammatical terms to
assist you if you are not thoroughly familiar with the meaning of these grammatical terms.

Rule 1: To form the feminine singular of a noun, a pronoun, an adjective, or an article, add the
suffix nef to the masculine singular form. Only nouns, pronouns, adjectives, and articles take
feminine endings in the Artificial Language. When gender is not specified, the masculine form
is used.

Example: If a male eagle is a verlek, then a female eagle is a verleknef.
If an ambitious man is a tosle man, an ambitious woman is a toslenef woman.

Rule 2: To form the plural of nouns, pronouns, adjectives, and articles, add the suffix oz to the
correct singular form.

Example: If one male eagle is a verlek, several male eagles are verlekoz.
If an ambitious woman is a toslenef woman, several ambitious women are
toslenefoz women.

Rule 3: Adjectives modifying nouns and pronouns with feminine and/or plural endings must
have endings that agree with the words they modify. In addition, an article (a/an and the)
preceding a noun must also agree with the noun in gender and number.

Example: If an active male eagle is a sojle verlek, an active female eagle is a sojlenef
verleknef and several active female eagles are sojlenefoz verleknefoz.
If this male eagle is volle verlek, these female eagles are vollenefoz verleknefoz.
If the male eagle is wir verlek, the female eagle is wirnef verleknef and the female
eagles are wirnefoz verleknefoz.
If a male eagle is bex verlek, several male eagles are bexoz verlekoz.

Rule 4: The stem of a verb is obtained by omitting the suffix ker from the infinitive form of the
verb.

Example: The stem of the verb tirker is tir.Rule 5: All subjects and their verbs must agree in number; that is, singular subjects require

singular verbs and plural subjects require plural verbs. (See Rules 6 and 7.)

Rule 6: To form the present tense of a verb, add the suffix em to the stem for the singular or the
suffix im to the stem for the plural.
Example: If to bark is nalker then nalem is the present tense for the singular (the dog barks)
and nalim is the present tense for the plural (the dogs bark).

Rule 7: To form the past tense of a verb, first add the suffix zot to the stem, and then add the
suffix em if the verb is singular or the suffix im if it is plural.
Example: If to bark is nalker, then nalzotem is the past tense for the singular (the dog
barked) and nalzotim is the past tense for the plural (the dogs barked).

Rule 8: To form the past participle of a verb, add to the stem of the verb the suffix to. It can be
used to form compound tenses with the verb to have, as a predicate with the verb to be, or as an
adjective. In the last two cases, it takes masculine, feminine, singular and plural forms in
agreement with the noun to which it refers.

An example of use in a compound tense with the verb to have:
If to bark is nalker and to have is tulker, then tulem nalto is the present perfect for the
singular (the dog has barked) and tulim nalto is the present perfect for the plural (the
dogs have barked). Similarly, tulzotem nalto is the past perfect for the singular (the
dog had barked) and tulzotim nalto is the past perfect for the plural (the dogs had
barked).

An example of use as a predicate with the verb to be:

If to adopt is rapker and to be is synker, then a boy was adopted is a ekaplek
synzotem rapto and many girls were adopted is ekapleknefoz synzotim raptonefoz.

An example of use as an adjective:
If to delight is kasker then a delighted boy is a kasto ekaplek and many delighted girls
are kastonefoz ekapleknefoz.

Rule 9: To form a noun from a verb, add the suffix lek to the stem of the verb.
Example: If longker is to write, then a writer is a longlek.

Rule 10: To form an adjective from a noun, substitute the suffix le for the suffix lek.

Example: If pellek is beauty, then a beautiful male eagle is a pelle verlek and a beautiful
female eagle is a pellenef verleknef. (Note the feminine suffix nef.)

Rule 11: To form an adverb from an adjective, add the suffix ki to the masculine form of the
adjective. (Note that adverbs do not change their form to agree in gender or number with the
word they modify.)

Example: If pelle is beautiful, then beautifully is pelleki.

Rule 12: To form the possessive of a noun or pronoun, add the suffix ae to the noun or pronoun
after any plural or feminine suffixes.

Example: If a boglek is a dog, then a dog’s collar is a boglekae collar.
If he is yev, then his book is yevae book.
If she is yevnef, then her book is yevnefae book.

Rule 13: To make a word negative, add the prefix fer to the correct affirmative form.

Example: If an active male eagle is a sojle verlek, an inactive male eagle is a fersojle verlek.
If the dog barks is boglek nalem, then the dog does not bark is the boglek
fernalem.

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Preparing for the Artificial Language Test

Purpose of this Section
The purpose of this section is to help you to prepare for the Artificial Language Test (ALT). This test is intended to assess an applicant’s ability to learn Spanish. The test is based on an artificial language, the rules of which are based on some of the grammatical structures of
Spanish. Because all Border Patrol Agents are required to know the Spanish language, it is important to assess language-learning abilities in all applicants to the Border Patrol Agent occupation who do not already know Spanish. A validation study conducted by the U.S. Office
of Personnel Management and an attrition study conducted at the Border Patrol Academy demonstrated that the ALT is an extremely effective predictor of success in learning Spanish at the Academy. Accordingly, you are encouraged to study this manual with special care and  attention.

This section is designed to allow every opportunity for you to study the grammatical rules of the

Artificial Language prior to taking the ALT. In this way, you can spend concentrated time in
learning to use grammatical rules that you will need to apply not only in the test, but also in the
process of learning Spanish, if you are selected for a Border Patrol Agent (Trainee) position.
Organization of this Section

Section IV contains several parts: vocabulary lists (or dictionary) for the Artificial Language, a
set of grammatical rules, a glossary of grammatical terms (for applicants who do not remember
the meaning of some of these terms), a practice test, which is similar in format and length to the
actual test, and, lastly, a clear and concise explanation of why each response in the test is right or
wrong. This last part should greatly assist you in learning how to apply each of the rules. The
parts of this section are organized in the following sequence.

First: The Vocabulary Lists

The lists of words need not be memorized because during the actual test they will be available to
you for constant consultation.

Second: The Glossary of Grammatical Rules for the Artificial Language

These rules are the essence of the Artificial Language because they are the essence of its
connection to the structures of the Spanish language. There is no need to memorize the rules
because they will be available to you during the test. Also, you should note that some of the
rules will be different in the actual test. For example, if the feminine form of a noun takes the
suffix nef in the rules presented in this manual, in the actual test the feminine form of a noun
may take a different ending.

Third: Glossary of Grammatical Terms

This glossary will provide a refresher mini-course in grammatical terms (such as “verb,”
“noun,” “adjective,” and “adverb”) for applicants who have forgotten the meaning of these
terms. The glossary will also be available for consultation during the actual test. In this section,
however, the meaning of the terms will be discussed in greater depth, and it is therefore
advisable for you to study the discussion here with special attention and concentration.
Fourth: The Practice Test

The practice test is similar, but not exactly the same, in length and format, and in its application
of the grammatical rules to the actual test.

The practice test questions contain tasks that require a correct translation from English to the
Artificial Language and that require the application of grammatical rules to Artificial Language
sentences. In some cases, these tasks involve an entire sentence, while in others they involve
only part of a sentence.

While taking the practice test, you should refer to all the materials described above, that is, to the
vocabulary lists, the grammatical rules for the Artificial Language, and the glossary of
grammatical terms. During the actual test, you will be able to refer to these sources at all times.
When taking the actual test, you will be given two booklets: One (called the “Supplemental
Booklet”) will contain the reference materials (the vocabulary lists, the grammatical rules, and
the glossary of grammatical terms), while the other will contain the test questions. You will have
access to the “Supplemental Booklet” at all times while taking the test, and you will be able to
consult the reference materials in the Supplemental Booklet while answering the test questions.
Therefore, it would be advisable for you to practice using the reference materials while taking
the practice test.

Fifth: The Rationale for Each Response
The last part of this section contains a clear and concise explanation of why each response choice
in the test is right or wrong. Since the test is a multiple-choice test, each response choice must
be evaluated separately. Consequently, it is important for you to know which rule is pertinent to
each response choice. As will be clear from the study of the explanations, some response
choices (those that are correct) conform to the appropriate rules, while the majority of response
choices (those that are incorrect) violate one or more of the rules.

It is very advisable for you to analyze each and every one of the explanations after taking the
practice test. If you find that many of your answers to the test questions are incorrect, it would
be a good idea for you to retake the practice test after (1) studying the rationale for each response
choice, and (2) studying the grammatical rules once again, with more attention to detail.

THE VOCABULARY LISTS
The words on the following lists are the same; they are merely arranged differently, as they
would be in a bilingual dictionary. In the first list, you can look up words in English to find their
equivalent word in the Artificial Language. In the second list, you can look up words in the
Artificial Language to find their equivalent word in English. During the actual test, you will
have the vocabulary lists with you for consultation at all times. Nonetheless, you should note
that the words given below are not the same as those given in the actual test. Therefore, it is best
not to try to memorize them before taking the actual test.

Word List Arranged Alphabetically
by the English Word
Word List Arranged Alphabetically
by the Artificial Language Word
English
Artificial
Language English
Artificial
Language
Artificial
Language English
Artificial
Language English
a, an bex skillful janle almanlek government kaplek man
alien huslek that velle arker to drive kometlek friend
and loa the wir avelek enemy lexker to station
boy ekaplek this volle bex a, an liaker to injure
country failek to be synker bonker to guard loa and
difficult glasle to border regker browlek river mor from
enemy avelek to cross chonker chonker to cross pirker to escape
friend kometlek to drive arker colle legal quea of
from mor to escape pirker daqlek jeep regker to border
government almanlek to guard bonker degker to shoot synker to be
he, him yev to have tulker ekaplek boy tatker to spy
jeep daqlek to identify kalenker failek country trenedlek paper
legal colle to injure liaker frigker to work tulker to have
loyal inle to inspect zelker glasle difficult velle that
man kaplek to shoot degker huslek alien volle this
of quea to spy tatker inle loyal wir the
paper trenedlek to station lexker janle skillful yev he, him
river browlek to work frigker kalenker to identify zelker to inspect

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Sample Questions for the Spanish Language Proficiency Test

INTRODUCTION
Purpose of this Section
The purpose of this Section is to provide you with information about the Spanish Language Proficiency Test. All Border Patrol Agents are required to know the Spanish language. Accordingly, all applicants for the position of Border Patrol Agent are required to take either the  Spanish Language Proficiency Test or the ALT. Applicants who already know Spanish should take the Spanish Language Proficiency Test; all other applicants should take the ALT. The sample questions in this section will make you very familiar with both the type and the difficulty
level of the questions on the Spanish Language Proficiency Test, thus giving you a guide to judge whether you should take the Spanish

Language Proficiency Test or the ALT.

These sample questions and explanations are not intended to teach you enough Spanish to pass the Spanish Language Proficiency Test. The purpose of these questions and explanations is to make you familiar with the types of questions on the Spanish Language Proficiency Test.

Organization of this Section

The Spanish Language Proficiency Test is divided into two parts. The first part consists entirely of vocabulary questions; the second part is divided into three sections, each section dealing with a different type of grammar question. The following pages contain four examples of each type of question included in the Spanish Language Proficiency Test.

 

Sample Questions for the Spanish Language Proficiency Test

Read the sentence and then choose the most appropriate synonym for the underlined
word.
1. Es muy complicado pilotar mi avión.

A) fácil
B) difícil
C) divertido
D) compilado
E) comparado

The word complicado means complicated. In the context of the sentence, it refers to
something that is hard to do. Hence, response B, difícil (“difficult”), is the best synonym.
Response A, fácil (“easy”), is opposite in meaning to complicado. Response C,
divertido, has the same beginning syllable (“di-”) as the correct answer, but its meaning
(“amusing”) is completely different. The basic meanings of responses D and E
(“compiled” and “compared,” respectively) are completely different from the meaning of
complicado, although both compilado and comparado are phonetically similar to it.

2. Es fácil comprender lo que el agente está diciendo.

A) responder
B) comprobar
C) entender
D) pretender
E) desentender

The word comprender means to understand something after watching, listening to, or
reading it. Hence, response C, entender (“to understand”), is the best synonym.
Response E, desentender, is the exact opposite of the correct answer; in fact, it is
entender, but with a negative prefix added to it, thus giving it the meaning of “to
misunderstand.” Responses A, B, and D (“to respond,” “to verify,” and “to pretend”) are
completely unrelated to the meaning of comprender.

3. Hay que esclarecer todo el proceso.

A) encontrar
B) concentrar
C) aclarar
D) empeorar
E) aplastar

The word esclarecer means to clarify. Hence, response C, aclarar (“to clarify”), is the
best synonym. Responses A, B, D, and E (“to find,” “to concentrate,” “to worsen,” and
“to crush”) are completely unrelated to the meaning of esclarecer.

4. Hemos otorgado concesiones especiales a los países en vías de desarrollo.

A) privilegios
B) determinaciones
C) estipendios
D) cortesías
E) ofrendas

The word concesiones means concessions, rights or privileges that have been granted.
Hence, response A, privilegios (“privileges”) is the best synonym. Responses B, C, D,
and E (“determinations,” “stipends,” “courtesies,” and “offerings”) are completely
unrelated to the meaning of concesiones.

PART II
Section I
Read each sentence carefully. Select the appropriate word or phrase to fill each blank
space.

1. Me gusta entrar la puerta que está de la oficina.

A) a, sobre
B) en, desde
C) con, bajo
D) en, al lado
E) por, detrás

The correct answer is response E, por, detrás. Responses A, B, C, and D all use
incorrect prepositions.

2. La agente me la correspondencia cuando yo no en casa.

A) traido, estoy
B) traer, estuviera
C) trajo, estaba
D) traerá, habré estado
E) habrá traido, estar

The correct answer is response C, trajo, estaba, because both verbs represent the
correct past tense in the indicative mood (preterite indefinite trajo and preterite imperfect
estaba). In responses A, B, D, and E, the wrong forms of the verb have been used.

3. Los oficiales _______ usan la sala de reuniones para discutir asuntos ______.

A) sumariamente / difícil
B) frecuentemente / variadas
C) normalmente / diversos
D) rara vez / personal
E) ocasionalmente / unilateral

Choice C is the correct answer. The adverb normalmente (“normally”) correctly
modifies the verb usan (“[they] use”), and the plural, masculine adjective diversos
(“diverse”) agrees in gender and number with the noun it modifies (“asuntos”). In
responses A, D, and E, there is no agreement in number between adjective and noun.
In response B, there is no agreement in gender between adjective and noun.

4. ________ a los detenidos y ________ al tanto de los resultados.

A) Visita / pónlos
B) Visite / ponerlos
C) Visitaré / ponga
D) Habré visitado / pondré
E) Visitando / había puesto

Response A is the correct answer. The two imperative verb forms [tú] visita and [tú]
pónlos are the correct choices. In responses B, C, D, and E, there is no agreement
between the two main verbs.

Section II
Read each sentence carefully. Select the one sentence that is correct.

1. A) Todos los agentes coincidieron del sospechoso cuando entrarían por la puerta.
B) El sospechoso que entró fue señalado en la puerta con los agentes coincidiendo.
C) Todos los agentes señalaron al mismo sospechoso cuando entró por la puerta.
D) Todos los agentes coincidió en señalar al sospechoso cuando entrarán por la
puerta.

The correct answer to this item is response C because it has the proper sentence
structure (subject, verb, direct object) and contains no errors. Responses A, B, and D
contain various errors, including incorrect prepositions, illogical structures, or incorrect
verb forms; hence, none of them can be the correct answer.

2. A) La inmigración ilegal y el contrabando suponen un gran problema para
muchos países.
B) La inmigración ilegal y el contrabando supongo un problema grande para
muchos países.
C) Muchos países con gran problemas suponían la inmigración ilegal y el
contrabando.
D) La inmigración ilegales y el contrabando suponen un gran problema para
muchos países.

The correct answer to this item is response A because it has the proper sentence
structure (subject, verb, direct object, indirect object) and contains no errors.
Responses B, C, and D contain various errors, including incorrect terms, illogical
structures, or incorrect verb forms; hence, none of these responses can be the correct
answer.

3. A) Como el agente sabía que andando es bueno para la salud, andaría unos veinte
minutos antes de iniciar el entrenamiento oficial.
B) Como el agente sabía que andar es bueno para la salud, anduvo unos veinte
minutos antes de iniciar el entrenamiento oficial.
C) Andaría unos veinte minutos como andar es bueno sabía el agente antes de
iniciar el entrenamiento oficial.
D) Que andar es bueno para la salud unos veinte minutos antes de había iniciado el
entrenamiento oficial el agente sabía que andaría.
The correct answer to this item is response B because it has the proper sentence
structure (subject, verb, direct object) and contains no errors. Responses A, C, and D
contain various errors, including incorrect terms, misplaced clauses, or disagreement of
verb tenses; hence, none of these responses can be the correct answer.

4. A) Aunque hay países donde existen varias agrupaciones de derechos humanos
que se preocupan por velar sobre las garantías individuales y que resultan muy
efectivas en ciertas sociedades en que su esfera de influencia es muy limitada o
casi nula.
B) Existen varias agrupaciones internacionales de derechos humanos que se
preocupan por velar sobre las garantías individuales y que resultan muy
efectivas en ciertas sociedades, aunque hay países en que su esfera de
influencia es muy limitada o casi nula.
C) Existen de derechos humanos varias agrupaciones internacionales que se
preocupan por velar sobre las garantías individuales, aunque hay países en que
su esfera de influencia que resultan muy efectivas en ciertas sociedades es muy
limitada o casi nula.
D) Hay países en que existen varias agrupaciones internacionales de derechos
humanos y que resultan muy efectivas en ciertas sociedades aunque que se
preocupan por velar sobre las garantías individuales en que su esfera de
influencia es muy limitada o casi nula.

The correct answer to this item is response B because it has the proper sentence
structure (subject, verb, direct object, indirect object) and contains no errors.
Responses A, C, and D contain misplaced clauses; hence, none of these responses
can be the correct answer.

Section III
Read each sentence carefully. Select the correct word or phrase to replace the
underlined portions of the sentence. In those cases in which the sentence needs no
correction, select alternative (E).

1. Los agentes detectaron el contrabando antes de abrir la maleta.

A) abriendo
B) abrirá
C) abriremos
D) abrió
E) No es necesario hacer ninguna corrección.

The correct answer to this item is response E because the infinitive form of the verb,
abrir, must be used after the preposition de. Incorrect forms of the verb have been used
in the other responses; namely, response A (gerund), response B (future imperfect),
response C (future imperfect), and response D (preterite indefinite).

2. Es necesario tener todo las documentos de identificación en regla.

A) todos las
B) todo el
C) todas las
D) todos los
E) No es necesario hacer ninguna corrección.

The correct answer is response D because todos los is plural in number and masculine
in gender, and is thus in agreement with documentos. Responses A, B, and C have
either the wrong gender or the wrong number.

3. Los manuales hemos abarcado un sinnúmero de posibilidades y hemos abreviado

el tiempo que se necesita para completar los trámites.
A) abarcando / abreviando
B) abarcados / abreviados
C) abarcó / abrevió
D) abarcan / abrevian
E) No es necesario hacer ninguna corrección.

Response D is the correct answer because the two verbs in the third person plural
[abarcan (“cover”) and abrevian (“shorten”)] agree with the masculine plural subject
manuales (“manuals”).

Responses A and B use incorrect verb forms (gerund and participle). In responses C
and E, there is no agreement between verbs and subject.

4. Los que abastecen las cocinas de las unidades de rescate anoche trajeron
magníficas provisiones.

A) habían abastecido / lentamente
B) abasteciendo / no
C) abastecieran / mañana
D) abastezco / arriba
E) No es necesario hacer ninguna corrección.

Response E is the correct answer because the present indicative verb abastecen
(“[they] supply”) agrees with the preterite indefinite trajeron (“[they] brought”) after the
correctly selected adverb anoche (“last night”). In response A, the adverb of manner
lentamente (“slowly”) is incorrect. Responses B and C use the wrong verb form.
Response D does not have agreement in number between subject and verb.

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Answers to Logical Reasoning Practice Test

1. Correct Answer: B) some jurisdictions still distinguish between crimes malum in se and
malum prohibitum.

This question is concerned with classification of crimes into sets—that is, with the classification
of crimes as either malum in se or malum prohibitum. The last phrase in the last sentence tells us
that many jurisdictions make the distinction between these two categories of crimes. Response B
follows from that sentence, because if many jurisdictions make the distinction, some jurisdictions
make the distinction. From the fact that many jurisdictions make the distinction, it cannot be
inferred that many do not make the distinction. Therefore, Response A is incorrect.
Responses C, D, and E are based on erroneous definitions of the two classes of crimes. The
paragraph tells us that all crimes characterized as malum in se are inherently evil. Response C is
false because it cannot be the case that SOME crimes characterized as malum in se are NOT
inherently evil. The paragraph also tells us that all crimes characterized as malum prohibitum are
declared as offenses by a legislature. Response D is false because it cannot be the case that SOME
crimes characterized as malum prohibitum are NOT declared by a legislature to be an offense. In
the paragraph, we are told that filing a tax return late is malum prohibitum, rather than malum in se.
Response E is incorrect because it cannot be the case that failing to file a tax return is malum in se.

2. Correct Answer: C) If Claus Inc. can show that it was not negligent, then it is not liable.

The second sentence states the liability rule for common carriers: all common carriers are liable
for cargo damage unless they can show that they are not negligent; if they can show that they are
not negligent, then they are not liable for cargo damage. Claus Inc. is a common carrier, and
accordingly this rule applies to it. From this rule it follows that if Claus Inc. can show it was not
negligent, then it is not liable, Response C. Response A contradicts this rule by claiming that
when Claus Inc. is liable it can show that it was not negligent. Response B contradicts this rule
by claiming that Claus Inc. is not liable even when it cannot show that it is not negligent.
Responses D and E concern Nichols Inc., a contract carrier. However, the terms of the Nichols
Inc. contract were not disclosed in the paragraph, so neither response is supported.

3. Correct Answer: A) some e-mail messages that have been requested as part of
investigations have contained messages that would never be said face-to-face.

This is an example of a test question with a negative lead-in statement. It asks for the conclusion
that is NOT supported by the paragraph. That means that four of the statements are valid
conclusions from the paragraph while one is not. Response B (some messages that people would
never say face-to-face are sent in e-mail messages) is a valid conclusion because it restates a fact
given in the last sentence of the paragraph. Response E (some e-mail messages contain
information that would be omitted from formal writing) is valid because it restates the other fact
in the last sentence of the paragraph.

The next-to-last sentence in the paragraph is the source of both response C (some e-mail
messages have been requested as part of investigations) and response D (e-mail messages have
not been exempted from investigations). Both of these choices restate information in that
sentence, based on the fact that access to e-mail messages was sought and granted. This leaves
only the first option, response A (Some e-mail messages that have been requested as part of
investigations have contained messages that would never be said face-to-face). This is the only
choice that does NOT represent a valid conclusion, because even though we know from the
paragraph that there is a group of e-mail messages that are requested in investigations and also
that there is a group of messages that contain information that people would not say face-to-face,
there is nothing that says that these groups overlap. We simply do not know.

4. Correct Answer: B) Phyllis T. was not married and had no dependents.

This question concerns an either/or situation. The paragraph states that benefits under the Federal
Employees Compensation Act are awarded at one level (3/4 of salary) if a beneficiary is married
or has dependents when injured and at another level (2/3 of salary) if this is not true.
Phyllis T. is eligible for benefits under the Act. The paragraph states that Phyllis T.’s benefit
level was 2/3 of her salary. Given this benefit level, it is clear that Phyllis T. did not meet either
of the conditions for the 3/4 level. Therefore, responses A, C, and D cannot be correct (A states
that she was married, C states that she had dependents, and D states that she both was married
and had dependents). Response E goes beyond the facts given because prior marriages are not
listed as a factor relating to this benefit. The one correct conclusion is that Phyllis T. did not
meet either requirement to qualify for the higher benefit level (3/4 of salary), so response B is the
correct answer to the question.

5. Correct Answer: E) some of the engineers were immigrants

Response E is correct because it restates the third sentence in terms of the overlap between
immigrants and engineers in the country described in the paragraph. Response A says that most
immigrants are engineers or nurses, which are professional occupations. However, the second
sentence says that most immigrants are not employed in professional occupations, so Response A
is false. Response B is false because it denies that there is any overlap between immigrants and
nurses, even though this overlap is clear from the third sentence of the paragraph. Response C is
false because it denies the overlap between immigrants and engineers. Because the paragraph
does not give complete information about the non-professionals (immigrant and non-immigrant)
in the country described in the paragraph, Response D is invalid.

6. Correct Answer: D) all of the .45 caliber weapons were sold legally

The second and last sentences are the two main premises in the paragraph. These two sentences
give information about three categories of weapons: weapons made by Precision Arms, weapons
sold legally, and .45 caliber weapons.

The last sentence states that none of the illegally sold weapons were .45 caliber. This means that
none of the .45 caliber weapons were sold illegally. Notice that this new statement is a double
negative. In affirmative form the statement means that all of the .45 caliber weapons were sold
legally, Choice D.

The information that all of the .45 caliber weapons were sold legally (last sentence), combined
with the information that all of the weapons made by Precision Arms were sold legally (second
sentence), allows us to draw no valid conclusions about the relationship between the .45 caliber
weapons and the weapons made by Precision Arms. There is insufficient information about the
entire group of weapons sold legally to know whether the group of .45 caliber weapons and the
group of weapons made by Precision Arms overlapped entirely (Choice A), partially (Choice C),
or not at all (Choice B).

Choice E contradicts the second sentence and is, therefore, invalid.

7. Correct Answer: C) if fingerprints are decipherable, then it is impossible to identify the
person to whom they belong

This question asks for the response option that cannot be validly concluded from the information
in the paragraph. The only response option that cannot be validly concluded is Response C, so
the correct answer to question 7 is Response C. Response C is invalid because the paragraph
does not provide enough information to conclude whether or not it would be possible to identify
the person to whom the fingerprints belong from the mere fact that the fingerprints are
decipherable.

Response A refers to a condition where it is possible to identify the person to whom fingerprints
belong. Based on the final sentence in the paragraph, this condition of fingerprints means that
the fingerprints could be classified by general shape and contour or by pattern type. Based on
the second sentence, the ability to classify the fingerprints means that the fingerprints are
decipherable.

Since Response B refers to a condition in which finger patterns from fingerprints are not
decipherable, we know from the second sentence that, in that circumstance, they cannot be
classified by general shape and contour or by pattern type. From the final sentence in the
paragraph, we can infer that since they cannot be classified by these characteristics, then it is
impossible to identify the person to whom the fingerprints belong.

According to the second sentence, fingerprints cannot be classified by general shape and contour
or by pattern type when they are not decipherable. Therefore, if fingerprints can be classified by
general shape and contour or by pattern type, then the fingerprints must be decipherable,

Response D. According to the third sentence, it is impossible to identify the owner of a set of
fingerprints when the fingerprints cannot be classified by general shape and contour or by pattern
type. Therefore, if it is possible to identify the person to whom fingerprints belong, then the
fingerprints must be able to be classified by general shape and contour or pattern type, Response
E. Notice that Responses D and E are valid based on the same type of reasoning. The first and
second statements of the second sentence were made opposite and reversed in Response D, and
the first and second statements of the final sentence were made opposite and reversed in
Response E.

8. Correct Answer: E) some devices in which a physical reaction is produced, such as that
caused by overloading a container with compressed air, are mechanical explosives

The correct answer is E. The third sentence states the overlap between all mechanical explosives
and devices in which a physical reaction is produced, such as that caused by overloading a
container with compressed air. From this, we can safely conclude that some devices in which a
physical reaction is produced, such as that caused by overloading a container with compressed
air, are mechanical explosives.

Response A is incorrect because the paragraph does not provide sufficient information to validly
conclude that all explosives which have been restricted to military weapons are nuclear weapons.
It may be that some types of explosives other than nuclear weapons also have been restricted to
military weapons.

Responses B and C are incorrect because they contradict the paragraph. Response B contradicts
the third sentence, and Response C contradicts the last sentence.

Response D is incorrect because the paragraph provides no information about whether or not
mechanical explosives are restricted to military weapons.

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