Border Patrol Agent

Border Patrol Test

Sample Logical Reasoning Test Answers

1. Correct Answer:

D) none of the teams are exempt from traveling to any duty location within the sector

This question is about the canine teams in Agent Smith’s sector.
According to the last sentence in the paragraph, all of the canine
teams must be available to travel to any duty station within the sector.
This is equivalent to saying that none of the teams are exempt from
traveling to any duty location within the sector, Response D.
Responses B and C contradict the information in the last sentence.
The third sentence in the paragraph informs us that most teams are
stationed along the border. Responses A and E contradict this
information.

2. Correct Answer:

C) if special funding is not needed from the city council, then it is not a holiday weekend

Combining the information in the last two sentences we know that if
it is a holiday weekend, then special funding is needed from the city
council (due to assigning additional staff to duty). Accordingly, if
special funding is not needed, then it must not be a holiday weekend;
otherwise, special funding would be needed.
Responses A and E are false because they contradict the information
in the paragraph. Responses B and D might be true, but they are not
fully supported by the paragraph.

3. Correct Answer:

B) all cross border tunnels are used for narcotics smuggling

This is an example of a test question with a negative lead statement.
It asks for the conclusion that is NOT supported by the paragraph.
That means that four of the statements are valid conclusions based on
the paragraph while one is not. In this case, Response B is invalid.
The paragraph says that “most” cross border tunnels are used for
smuggling narcotics, but Response B says that “all” cross border
tunnels are used for smuggling narcotics.
Responses C and D are based on the information that most cross
border tunnels are crudely constructed. Response C is based on the
information that most cross border tunnels are used to smuggle
narcotics. Finally, Response E combines all information about the
tunnels being crudely constructed and used for smuggling narcotics.

4. Correct Answer:

A) if P.C. loses her U.S. citizenship without being denaturalized, then she must have expatriated

This question concerns a situation where there are two ways for
naturalized U.S. citizens to lose U.S. citizenship, either by
expatriation or denaturalization. In Response A, the situation is
considered in which P.C. has lost her U.S. citizenship without being
denaturalized. Expatriation is the only option remaining to explain
the loss of U.S. citizenship.
Responses B and E are invalid because they fail to consider that there
is more than one way for P.C. to lose U.S. citizenship. Responses C
and D are about situations in which P.C. may or may not be
denaturalized. These two responses are invalid because they fail to
consider that there are several possible reasons for denaturalization.

5. Correct Answer:

B) no one ineligible to apply for permanent resident status was a national of Vietnam who was paroled into the United States through the Orderly Departure Program

This paragraph is mainly about the group of Vietnamese Nationals
who were paroled into the United States under the Orderly Departure
Program with indefinite immigration status. In 2003, a new rule
made everyone in this group of Vietnamese Nationals (and others)
eligible to apply for permanent resident status. Accordingly, anyone
who is not eligible to apply for permanent resident status must not be
part of this group of Vietnamese Nationals, which is equivalent to
Response B.
Responses A and C fail to recognize that others, such as nationals of
Cambodia, were also eligible to apply for permanent resident status.
Responses D and E contradict the information that everyone in the
group of Vietnamese Nationals who were paroled into the United
States under the Orderly Departure Program was eligible to apply for
permanent resident status.

6. Correct Answer:

C) if an applicant’s documentation appears to be true and relevant to an employer, the employer must refuse acceptance and ask for other documentation from the Government’s list of acceptable documents

This question asks for the response option that CANNOT be validly
concluded from the information in the paragraph. The only response
option that cannot be validly concluded is Response C. Response C
is invalid because the paragraph does not say that employers must
refuse acceptance of documentation that appears to be true and
relevant.

Responses B and E are valid based on the information in the first
sentence. Response A is valid based on the information in the second
sentence that employers cannot change documentation requirements.
Response D is valid based on the information in the last sentence
stating that employers may request different documentation when
they believe the documentation submitted appears to be altered.

7. Correct Answer:

A) all of the employees from Honduras were working legally

The correct answer is A. The last sentence of the paragraph states
that none of the illegal workers were from Honduras, which is
equivalent to saying that none of the employees from Honduras were
working illegally. Given that none were working illegally, it must be
the case that all were working legally.

From the information in the paragraph, we know that all of the female
employees were working legally and that all of the employees from
Honduras were working legally. However, there is insufficient
information to determine how many of the female employees were
from Honduras. Therefore, Responses C, D, and E cannot be validly
concluded. Response B contradicts the information that all of the
female employees were working legally.
8. Correct Answer:

C) was not born in the United States to U.S. citizens parents

According to the paragraph, there are two ways of acquiring U.S.
citizenship at birth. Also, the paragraph states that J.B. did not
acquire U.S. citizenship at birth. Therefore, the only conclusion that
can be validly drawn is that J.B. did not meet either of the two
conditions for acquiring U.S. citizenship at birth. Specifically, J.B.
was not born in the United States to U.S. citizen parents, and J.B. was
not born overseas to U.S. citizen parents who previously lived in the
United States for the required period of time. Any other conclusion is
not supported by the information in the paragraph.

9. Correct Answer:

E) only sector canine handlers have the authority to issue citations for misdemeanor marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in
their presence

Question 9 is a negative lead item, so the correct response is the only
response option that CANNOT be validly concluded. The first
sentence states that all state peace officers have authority to issue
certain drug-related citations. Response E is invalid because it says
that only sector canine handlers have such authority.

The first sentence states that all state peace officers have authority to
issue certain drug-related citations; therefore, at least some who have
authority to issue certain drug-related citations must be peace
officers, Response A. The last sentence states that all sector canine
handlers are state peace officers; therefore, all sector canine handlers
have authority to issue certain drug-related citations because the
handlers are state peace officers, Response B. Moreover, given that
all sector canine handlers have authority to issue certain drug-related
citations, it must be the case that at least some individuals who have
authority to issue certain drug-related citations are sector canine
handlers, Response C. Finally, given that all sector canine handlers
have authority to issue certain drug-related citations, it must be the
case that no sector canine handlers lack authority to issue certain
drug-related citations, Response D.

10. Correct Answer:

E) if C.P. has veterans’ preference, then C.P. is eligible to apply for any open civil service examination

The fourth sentence in the paragraph states that when an applicant has
veteran’s preference, the applicant has permanent reinstatement
eligibility. The second sentence states that an applicant with
reinstatement eligibility is eligible to apply for any civil service
examination. Therefore, if an applicant has veteran’s preference, the
applicant is eligible to apply for any civil service examination due to
having reinstatement eligibility. Accordingly, Response E is valid
because C.P. will be eligible to apply for any open civil service
examination if C.P. has veterans’ preference.

Responses A, B, C, and D are invalid because they make assumptions
which cannot be supported by the information in the paragraph.
Response B assumes that the only two ways of attaining
reinstatement eligibility is to have veteran’s preference or three years
creditable service. Response C assumes that applicants are allowed
to apply for open civil service examinations and jobs open only to
status candidates only when applicants have reinstatement eligibility.
Responses A and D assume that applicants are allowed to apply for
open civil service examinations and jobs open only to status
candidates when and only when applicants have veteran’s preference
or three years creditable service.

11. Correct Answer:

D) if Officer Stoler must physically force entry into the home, then Officer Stoler is not required to ensure that the home is secure upon
leaving

This question is a negative lead question, so the correct response is
the only response option that CANNOT be validly concluded. The
first sentence in the paragraph states that when officers must
physically force entry into a home, the officers are required to ensure
that the home is in a secure condition when the officers leave.
Response D contradicts this information in saying that Officer Stoler
is not required to leave the home in a secure condition. Thus,
Response D is the correct response.

Response A is valid and follows from the information in the fourth
sentence. Responses B and E are valid and follow from the
information in the first sentence. Response C follows from the
information in the third sentence and is valid.

12. Correct Answer:

D) all of the vehicles that did not contain bundles of marijuana were registered

The fourth sentence contains the information that all of the
unregistered vehicles contained bundles of marijuana. Accordingly,
if a vehicle did not contain bundles of marijuana, it could not be one
of the unregistered vehicles since all unregistered vehicles contained
marijuana. Therefore, it can be deduced that all of the vehicles that
did not contain bundles of marijuana were registered.

Response A contradicts the information in the last sentence.
Response B contradicts the information in the fourth sentence.
Response C assumes that only unregistered contained bundles of
marijuana, but there is insufficient information to make that
conclusion. Response E assumes that some of the registered vehicles
also contained bundles of marijuana, but there is insufficient
information to make that conclusion.

13. Correct Answer:

C) green cards are the only work authorization documents that expire after 10 years

This question is a negative lead question, so the correct response is
the only response option that CANNOT be validly concluded.
Response C is invalid because it assumes from the information that
all green cards are authorization documents that expire after 10 years
that green cards are the ONLY work authorization documents that
expire after 10 years.

The fourth sentence states that all green card applicants must apply in
person; therefore, an application that does not require applicants to
apply in person cannot be a green card application, Response A.
Response B is valid and is based on the information in the third
sentence. The second sentence establishes that green cards have an
expiration date, so Response D is valid. The last sentence says that
sometimes it takes a year to receive a new green card, so Response E
is valid.

Based on the information in the first sentence, if R.G. is not an
undocumented alien, then R.G. has not violated his/her nonimmigrant status. Based on the information in the second sentence, if
R.G. has not violated his/her non-immigrant status, then R.G. has not
accepted unauthorized employment. Therefore, if R.G. is not an
undocumented alien, the R.G. has not accepted unauthorized
employment, Response E.

14. Correct Answer:

E) if R.G. is not an undocumented alien, then R.G. has not accepted unauthorized employment

Responses A and D are invalid because it cannot be determined
whether or not R.G. entered the United States illegally based only on
the information that R.G. is an undocumented alien because R.G. may
have violated his/her non-immigrant status. Response C is invalid
because R.G. may be an undocumented alien for several different
reasons even if R.G. did not remain in the United States longer than
permitted. Likewise, Response B is invalid because R.G. could have
committed a violation other than accepting unauthorized employment
that resulted in violation of non-immigrant status.

15. Correct Answer:

A) H.B.’s departure is not voluntary if H.B.’s passport is allowed to be returned to H.B.

This question is a negative lead question, so the correct response is
the only response option that CANNOT be validly concluded.
According to the third sentence, if H.B.’s departure is voluntary, then
the passport is allowed to be returned to H.B. Based on this
information, Response A is invalid.
Responses C and D are both valid and are supported by the
information in the third sentence that the passport is allowed to be
returned to H.B. if H.B.’s departure is voluntary. Responses B and E
are valid and are supported by the information in the second sentence
that H.B.’s passport will be returned to the issuing government if
H.B. is being “removed.”

The third sentence says that almost all arrestees are unable to see after
being sprayed with OC. Accordingly, few arrestees are able to see
after being sprayed with OC, Response B.

16. Correct Answer:

B) few arrestees are able to see after being sprayed with OC

Response A is false because, according to the first sentence, OC is an
example of a tool that causes a burning sensation of the eyes but is
not deadly force. Sentences four and five do not say that the agencies
who have experienced fewer allegations of use of excessive force are
the same agencies that have reported a reduction in officer and
arrestee injuries, thus Response C is invalid. Response D is false
because it contradicts the information in the fourth sentence that some
agencies using OC have experienced fewer allegations. Finally, the
first sentence states that OC is an effective, non-lethal tool for violent
or threatening arrestees, but it does not state that OC is the only tool
(Response E).

Leave a Comment more...

Sample Logical Reasoning Test

Some questions will ask you to select the only answer that can be validly concluded from the
paragraph. These questions include a paragraph followed by five response options. Preceding
the five response options will be the phrase “From the information given above, it can be validly
concluded that.” In other questions you may be asked to select the only answer that cannot be
validly concluded from the paragraph. These questions include a paragraph followed by five
response options. Preceding the five response options will be the phrase “From the information
given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that.”

You must use only the information provided in the paragraph, without using any outside
information whatsoever.

It is suggested that you take no more than 32 minutes to complete questions 1 through 16. The
questions on this test will not be on the real test, but the real questions will be similar in form
and difficulty to these. The explanations for the correct and incorrect responses are found in the
last section.

1. Agent Smith is in charge of all of the canine teams in his sector. Fifteen canine teams are
stationed in his sector. Most of the canine teams are located at stations along the border.
Several canine teams are located away from the border in large urban areas. All of the teams
must be available to travel to any duty station within the sector.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, in Agent Smith’s sector,

A) most of the canine teams are located away from the border in large urban areas
B) only teams located along the border must be available to travel to any duty station within
the sector
C) teams in urban areas do not need to be available to travel to other duty stations within the
sector
D) none of the teams are exempt from traveling to any duty location within the sector
E) few of the canine teams are located at stations along the border

2. The Chief of Police strives to provide quality service to the community while using resources
efficiently. Accordingly, the Chief must take into account several factors when allocating
resources. For example, if it is a holiday weekend, additional staff are assigned to duty.
However, if additional staff are assigned to duty, special funding is needed from the city
council.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) if it is a holiday weekend, then special funding is not needed from the city council
B) if it is not a holiday weekend, then special funding is needed from the city council
C) if special funding is not needed from the city council, then it is not a holiday weekend
D) if special funding is needed from the city council, then it is a holiday weekend
E) if special funding is not needed from the city council, then it is a holiday weekend

3. Several different means of smuggling, such as cross-border tunnels, are used to bring
narcotics, individuals, and contraband into the United States. Cross-border tunnels can be
found all along the land border of the United States. They vary significantly in size and
complexity of construction, although most are crudely constructed. Further, most crossborder tunnels are used for smuggling narcotics, although illegal aliens and other contraband
have also been smuggled using tunnels.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) most cross-border tunnels are not skillfully constructed
B) all cross-border tunnels are used for narcotics smuggling
C) at least some cross-border tunnels are not free from narcotics smuggling
D) at least some of the means used for narcotics smuggling are cross-border tunnels
E) at least some means used for narcotics smuggling involve crudely constructed tunnels

4. Naturalized U.S. citizens can lose their U.S. citizenship if and only if they expatriate or are
denaturalized. Misrepresentation on a legal permanent residence application, certain crimes,
and leaving the United States within one year of naturalization to establish permanent
residence elsewhere are all grounds for denaturalization. P.C. is a naturalized U.S. citizen.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) if P.C. loses her U.S. citizenship without being denaturalized, then she must have
expatriated
B) if P.C. does not expatriate, then she cannot lose her U.S. citizenship
C) if P.C. is denaturalized, then she must have made a misrepresentation on her legal
permanent residence application
D) if P.C. has committed no crimes, then she cannot be denaturalized
E) P.C. cannot lose her U.S. citizenship without being denaturalized

5. Following the Vietnam War, many people from Southeast Asia were paroled into the United
States with an indefinite immigration status. In 2003, a new rule was developed to allow for
adjustment of immigration status for some of these people. According to the new rule, all
nationals of Vietnam (and some others, for example, nationals of Cambodia) who were
paroled into the United States through the Orderly Departure Program were eligible to apply
for permanent resident status.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, based on the new rule of
2003,

A) everyone eligible to apply for permanent resident status is a national of Vietnam who was
paroled into the United States through the Orderly Departure Program
B) no one ineligible to apply for permanent resident status was a national of Vietnam who
was paroled into the United States through the Orderly Departure Program
C) only nationals of Vietnam who were paroled into the United States through the Orderly
Departure Program were eligible to apply for permanent resident status
D) some nationals of Vietnam who were paroled into the United States through the Orderly
Departure Program were ineligible to apply for permanent resident status
E) some of those who were ineligible to apply for permanent resident status were nationals
of Vietnam who were paroled into the United States through the Orderly Departure
Program

6. An employer is permitted to hire a new employee only if the employer is able to verify that
the applicant’s employment documentation establishes both of the following: 1) the applicant
is authorized to work in the United States and 2) the applicant who presents the employment
authorization document is the person to whom the documentation was issued. An employer
cannot request that an applicant provide more or different documents than required. If the
documentation appears false or unrelated, employers must refuse acceptance and ask for
other documentation from the Government’s list of acceptable documents.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) no employer is permitted to limit which documents it will accept for verification of
employment authorization
B) if an employer cannot verify that an applicant is authorized to work, then the employer is
not permitted to hire the applicant
C) if an applicant’s documentation appears to be true and relevant to an employer, the
employer must refuse acceptance and ask for other documentation from the
Government’s list of acceptable documents
D) an employer may request different employment documentation if the provided
documentation appears to be altered
E) if an applicant is permitted to be hired, then the applicant has verifiable employment
authorization

57. Although the owner of a certain farm said that all her Central American (for example,
Salvadoran and Honduran) workers were working legally, Border Patrol Agents discovered
that many of the farm’s employees were not authorized to work in the United States. After
checking the employees’ documentation, Border Patrol Agents discovered that all of the
female employees were working in the United States legally and none of the illegal workers
were from Honduras.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, concerning the
employees on this farm,

A) all of the employees from Honduras were working legally
B) some of the women were illegal workers
C) none of the employees from Honduras were female
D) some of the female employees were from Honduras
E) all of the Salvadoran employees were women

8. The two ways of acquiring U.S. citizenship at birth are by place of birth and inheritance from
U.S. citizen parents. Any child born in the United States while under American jurisdiction
is a U.S. citizen at birth. Because foreign ambassadors are not subject to American
jurisdiction, children born in the United States to foreign ambassadors do not obtain
U.S. citizenship at birth. Children born overseas to U.S. citizen parents derive
U.S. citizenship at birth, as long as the parents previously lived in the United States for a
sufficient period of time. All others must naturalize to become citizens. J.B. was not a
U.S. citizen at birth.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that J.B.,

A) was born in the United States
B) was born overseas to U.S. citizen parents
C) was not born in the United States to U.S. citizen parents
D) was not born overseas to U.S. citizen parents
E) was born to U.S. citizen parents

69. In a certain border state, all state peace officers have the authority to issue state citations for
misdemeanor marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence. Early last
year, a certain Border Patrol Sector in the state began a new operation with state police.
Under this operation, all sector canine handlers were cross-designated as state peace officers.
From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that, in the border state
discussed above,

A) at least some law enforcement officers who can issue citations for misdemeanor
marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence are state peace officers
B) all sector canine handlers have the authority to issue state citations for misdemeanor
marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence
C) at least some individuals who have the authority to issue citations for misdemeanor
marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence are sector canine
handlers
D) no sector canine handlers lack the authority to issue state citations for misdemeanor
marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence
E) only sector canine handlers have the authority to issue citations for misdemeanor
marijuana and paraphernalia offenses committed in their presence

10. Reinstatement allows a former Federal employee to reenter the Federal competitive service
workforce without competing with the public in a civil service examination. If an applicant
has reinstatement eligibility, the applicant is eligible to apply for any open civil service
examination, as well as for Federal jobs open only to Federal employees. There is no time
limit on reinstatement eligibility in certain cases. For example, if an applicant has veterans’
preference or has acquired Federal career tenure by completing three years of substantially
continuous creditable service, the applicant has permanent reinstatement eligibility.
C.P. formerly worked in the Federal competitive service workforce.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) if C.P. has neither three years continuous creditable service nor veterans’ preference, then
C.P. cannot apply for a job open only to status candidates
B) if C.P. has permanent reinstatement eligibility, then C.P. must have veterans’ preference
or three years of continuous creditable service
C) if C.P. is not reinstatement eligible, then C.P. is not eligible to apply for any open civil
service examination or job open only to status candidates
D) if C.P. is eligible to apply for any open civil service examination or job open only to
status candidates, then C.P. must have veterans’ preference or three years of continuous
creditable service
E) if C.P. has veterans’ preference, then C.P. is eligible to apply for any open civil service
examination

11. When officers must physically force entry into a home, they are required to ensure that the
home is in a secure condition when they leave. Failure to secure the home leaves the officers
liable for loss of items from the home and/or damage to the home that results from leaving
the property unsecured. It is legal to break down doors in order to gain entry, if that degree
of force is determined by an officer to be necessary. If an officer forces entry, the officer is
required to take measures to minimize damage to the property. Officer Stoler needs to gain
entry into a suspect’s home.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) Officer Stoler is required to minimize damage to the home if Officer Stoler forces entry
B) if Officer Stoler is not required to ensure that the home is secure upon leaving, then
Officer Stoler did not force entry into the home
C) if Officer Stoler forces entry and fails to secure the home, Officer Stoler may be liable for
loss of items resulting from leaving the home unsecured
D) if Officer Stoler must physically force entry into the home, then Officer Stoler is not
required to ensure that the home is secure upon leaving
E) Officer Stoler will be required to secure the home unless Officer Stoler does not force
entry

12. Recently, Border Patrol agents received leads from informants about possible illegal activity
at La Rosita Park. When agents arrived at the park, they drove through the parking lots,
looking for individuals and vehicles matching their leads. The Agents examined several
suspicious vehicles, including many unregistered vehicles. All of the unregistered vehicles
contained bundles of marijuana. No arrests have been made in connection with this incident.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) several arrests have been made in connection with this incident
B) some of the vehicles that did not contain bundles of marijuana were unregistered
C) all of the vehicles that contained bundles of marijuana were unregistered
D) all of the vehicles that did not contain bundles of marijuana were registered
E) some of the vehicles that contained bundles of marijuana were registered

13. Green cards authorize aliens to work in the United States. The cards have a ten-year
expiration period. Application for a renewal of a green card can be made up to six months in
advance of expiration. In order to apply for renewal of a green card, the applicant is required
to apply in person and bring his or her current green card, application, fee, and new photos.
It may take one year for applicants to receive new green cards, but temporary documents are
provided.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) an application that does not require the applicant to apply in person cannot be a renewal
application for a green card
B) application for a replacement green card cannot be made more than six months in
advance of expiration
C) green cards are the only work authorization documents that expire after 10 years
D) it is not the case that some green cards never expire
E) some renewed green cards are not available in less than one year

14. If a non-immigrant alien (for example, a tourist) enters the United States illegally or enters
legally but violates his or her non-immigrant status, the alien is considered to be an
undocumented alien. If an alien accepts unauthorized employment, remains longer than
permitted, or commits one of several other violations, the alien has violated his or her nonimmigrant status. Some of these undocumented aliens purchase counterfeit documents or
assume another person’s identity by using fraudulently obtained genuine documents. R.G. is
a non-immigrant alien who is living in the United States.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) if R.G. is an undocumented alien, then R.G. must have entered the United States illegally
B) if R.G. has violated non-immigrant status but has not remained in the United States
longer than permitted, then R.G. has accepted unauthorized employment
C) if R.G. has not remained in the United States longer than permitted, R.G. is not an
undocumented alien
D) if R.G. is an undocumented alien, then R.G. entered the United States legally
E) if R.G. is not an undocumented alien, then R.G. has not accepted unauthorized
employment

15. When an illegal alien is being “removed,” the alien’s passport in U.S. Government
possession is returned to the issuing government, not to the illegal alien. If the illegal alien’s
departure is voluntary, the passport is allowed to be returned to the alien. The U.S.
Government holds the passport of H.B., an illegal alien who must leave the country.

From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) H.B.’s departure is not voluntary if H.B.’s passport is allowed to be returned to H.B.
B) if H.B.’s passport is not returned to the issuing government upon H.B.’s departure, then
H.B. is not being removed
C) H.B.’s departure is not voluntary unless the passport is allowed to be returned to H.B.
D) if H.B.’s passport is not allowed to be returned to H.B., then H.B.’s departure is not
voluntary
E) if H.B. is being removed, then H.B.’s passport is to be returned to the issuing government

16. Oleoresin capsicum (OC), or “pepper spray,” is an effective law enforcement tool for
incapacitating violent or threatening arrestees without using deadly force. Pepper spray
causes a burning sensation of the eyes and skin and tearing and swelling of the eyes. Almost
all arrestees are unable to see after being sprayed with OC. Some law enforcement agencies
that have adopted OC sprays have fewer allegations of use of excessive force. Many law
enforcement agencies have reported a reduction in officer and arrestee injuries as a result of
the introduction of OC sprays.

From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) any use of a law enforcement tool that causes a burning sensation of the eyes is
considered to be the use of deadly force
B) few arrestees are able to see after being sprayed with OC
C) all law enforcement agencies which have reduced officer and arrestee injuries have also
reduced allegations of use of excessive force
D) no agencies that have adopted OC sprays have fewer allegations of use of excessive force
E) only pepper spray is an effective law enforcement tool for incapacitating violent or
threatening arrestees without using deadly force

Leave a Comment more...

Glossary of Grammatical Terms

This glossary will be available to you during the actual test, but it is recommended that you study
the glossary before taking the test. The glossary contains basic grammatical concepts that apply
to English, Spanish, and the Artificial Language. The glossary contains fairly extensive and
comprehensive explanations of each grammatical concept. The explanations in the actual test
are not comprehensive. Consequently, it is particularly important that you study these
explanations very carefully.

Article: An article is a word that precedes a noun and determines whether it is a definite or
indefinite noun; for instance the book, an object.

Adjective: An adjective is a word used to modify a noun or pronoun (for example, intelligent
women). Generally, an adjective serves to answer questions such as: which, what kind of, how
many. For example, (1) “This book” would be the adjectival answer to the question “which
book?” (2) “a beautiful book” would be the adjectival answer to the question “what kind of
book?” and (3) “several days” would be the adjectival answer to the question “how many days?”
In English, adjectives have only one form, regardless of the type of noun they modify. More
specifically, whether a noun is feminine or masculine, singular or plural, the adjective used to
modify it remains the same; for example, the adjective strong is exactly the same when it refers
to one man, one woman, many women, or many men. By contrast, in both Spanish and the
Artificial Language, the ending of the adjective is different if the adjective is modifying a
singular masculine noun, a singular feminine noun, a plural feminine noun, or a plural masculine
noun.

Adverb: An adverb is a word used to modify a verb. For example, the sentence “It was
produced” could be modified to express where it was produced by saying “It was produced
locally.”

Generally, an adverb is used to answer the questions where (as in the example above), when (as
for example, “he comes frequently”), how (as for example, “she thinks logically”). Adverbs
sometimes are used to modify an adjective or another adverb. For example, in the sentence “She
has a really beautiful mind,” the adverb really modifies the adjective beautiful. In the sentence
“She thinks very logically,” the adverb very modifies the adverb logically. In the Artificial
Language the only adverbs used are those which modify verbs. In the Spanish language, as well
as in the English language, adverbs are used to modify verbs, adjectives, and other adverbs.
Gender: As a grammatical concept, gender refers to the classification of words according to
whether they are masculine, feminine, or neuter.

As stated above, Spanish takes masculine or feminine endings for nouns, adjectives, and articles.
The neuter form is used sometimes to express abstraction in a more emphatic manner. The
neuter form is NOT used in the Artificial Language. Consequently, it is very important for you
to remember that in the Artificial Language all nouns, adjectives, and articles take either a
masculine or a feminine ending according to whether the sentence refers to a male or female.
Also, all nouns and adjectives in the Artificial Language were conceived (for the sake of
simplicity) to be masculine. Thus, unless the feminine gender is specified in the sentence, the
masculine gender is used always.

Infinitive: An infinitive is the general, abstract form of a verb; for example, to look, to think, to
remember, to walk. Once the action expressed by a verb is attached to a specific subject (a
person, animal, or thing), then we say the verb is “conjugated,” or linked to that subject; for
example, “he/she thinks,” “the dog runs,” “the table broke.”

In contrast to the way that an infinitive in English is preceded by the word “to” (as in “to think”),
in the Artificial Language (and in Spanish), infinitives are defined by their suffix. In the version
of the Artificial Language used here, this ending (or suffix) is ker (in the actual test, the ending
will be different).

Noun: A noun is a word which names a person, place, thing, or abstraction; for example,
Lindsay, Chicago, tree, wisdom. A noun can refer to an individual (as in Lindsay, an individual
person, or Chicago, an individual place) or to a set (as in “all stones,” “all trees,” “all cities”).
Prefix: A prefix always occurs at the beginning of a word. It can be a single letter or a sequence
of letters; for example, amoral, illegal, dysfunctional.

A prefix is the opposite of a suffix, which always occurs at the end of a word, but both serve to
change the basic word in some way. For example, polite is the basic word (in this case an
adjective) to express the concept of behavior that conforms to accepted social norms, while
adding the prefix im and creating the word impolite transforms the word polite into its
contradictory concept. You should note that in the Artificial Language a prefix is used to create
a negative concept (see Rule 13). Such a rule mimics both Spanish and English, in both of which
negation is usually expressed by using a negative prefix.

Pronoun: A pronoun is a word used in place of a noun; for example, “she” instead of “Lindsay,”
“they” instead of “the guards,” “it” instead of “the stone,” “himself/herself” instead of “the
judge.”

In both English and Spanish there is a difference between a pronoun that stands for the subject of
an action (as in “He threw the stone,” meaning that Lindsay threw the stone), and a pronoun that
stands for the object of an action (as in “The stone was thrown at him,” meaning that the stone
was thrown at Lindsay). By contrast, in the Artificial Language used in this manual there is no
grammatical difference between he and him, both being yev. Remember, however, that in the
Artificial Language pronouns take feminine endings when the subject or object of the action is
feminine. Accordingly, in the version of the Artificial Language given in this manual, both she
(subject) and her (object) would be yevnef (i.e., yev plus the feminine suffix nef).

Suffix: A suffix always occurs at the end of a word. It can be a single letter or a sequence of
letters, for example, creamy, readable, nicely. Unlike prefixes, suffixes often change the “part of
speech” (i.e., the type of word). For example, in the case of creamy, the suffix y changes the
noun cream into the adjective creamy, and in the case of nicely, the suffix ly changes the
adjective nice into the adverb nicely.

In addition, suffixes are used to conjugate verbs (for example, to change the present tense into
the past tense: you walk, you walked) and to create the plural form of nouns (for example, boy,
boys). In Spanish, suffixes are used for the same purposes, but they are used for other purposes
too, such as creating plural forms for adjectives and changing the gender of a word.
In the Artificial Language, suffixes are used (1) to change the part of speech (for example, Rule
11 uses a suffix to change an adjective into an adverb), (2) to conjugate verbs (for example,
Rules 6 and 7 use suffixes to express the present and past tenses), and (3) to create the plural
form of nouns, pronouns, adjectives, and articles (Rule 2). In addition, the Artificial Language
mimics Spanish in using a suffix to express gender.

You should study all the rules on suffixes in the Artificial Language, and you should practice
using these rules, but you should NOT memorize them because (1) you will have them available
to you at all times during the actual test, and (2) in the actual test, some of the suffixes and
prefixes are different from the ones used in this practice test.

Verb: A verb is used to express either an action or a state of being. For example, “He prepared
dinner” expresses the action of making all preparations for dinner, while “He is a citizen”
expresses the state or condition of being a citizen.

A condition or “state of being” can be permanent or transitory. For example, “The agent’s horse
is a bay mare” expresses a permanent condition for the horse (being a bay mare), while “George
is at lunch” expresses a transitory condition for George (being at lunch). The Spanish language,
unlike English, has two different verbs to express permanent and transitory conditions, although
the Artificial Language is akin to English rather than to Spanish in its use of a single verb to
express any state of being.

When a verb is linked to a subject (i.e., “conjugated”) it changes from the abstract infinitive form
to a specific form such as a present tense or a past tense. The Artificial Language primarily uses
only two tenses: the simple past tense and the simple present tense in the indicative mood (see
Rules 6 and 7). (Verbs in the indicative mood express a real action or condition, whereas verbs
in the subjunctive mood express hypothetical actions or conditions. The subjunctive mood does
not exist in the Artificial Language, but it is very important in Spanish.)

You may find that the past participle is used in the test (see Rule 8). In that case, the present
perfect tense (they have crossed) and the past perfect tense (they had crossed) will be used in the
Artificial Language.

Be sure to apply the rules as directed in the test material. If no rule governing the past participle
is listed in the actual test material, then the past participle is treated as a simple past tense.

Leave a Comment more...

Grammatical Rules for the Artificial Language

The grammatical rules given here are similar, but not identical, to those used in the ALT. Some
of the suffixes (word endings) and prefixes (additions to the beginning of a word) used in the
actual test differ from those used in the practice test.

During the actual test, you will have access to the rules at all times. Consequently, it is
important that you understand these rules, but it is not necessary that you memorize them. In
fact, memorizing them will hinder rather than help you, since there are differences between the
rules in the version of the Artificial Language that appears here and the one that appears in the
actual test.

You should note that the next part of this section contains a glossary of grammatical terms to
assist you if you are not thoroughly familiar with the meaning of these grammatical terms.

Rule 1: To form the feminine singular of a noun, a pronoun, an adjective, or an article, add the
suffix nef to the masculine singular form. Only nouns, pronouns, adjectives, and articles take
feminine endings in the Artificial Language. When gender is not specified, the masculine form
is used.

Example: If a male eagle is a verlek, then a female eagle is a verleknef.
If an ambitious man is a tosle man, an ambitious woman is a toslenef woman.

Rule 2: To form the plural of nouns, pronouns, adjectives, and articles, add the suffix oz to the
correct singular form.

Example: If one male eagle is a verlek, several male eagles are verlekoz.
If an ambitious woman is a toslenef woman, several ambitious women are
toslenefoz women.

Rule 3: Adjectives modifying nouns and pronouns with feminine and/or plural endings must
have endings that agree with the words they modify. In addition, an article (a/an and the)
preceding a noun must also agree with the noun in gender and number.

Example: If an active male eagle is a sojle verlek, an active female eagle is a sojlenef
verleknef and several active female eagles are sojlenefoz verleknefoz.
If this male eagle is volle verlek, these female eagles are vollenefoz verleknefoz.
If the male eagle is wir verlek, the female eagle is wirnef verleknef and the female
eagles are wirnefoz verleknefoz.
If a male eagle is bex verlek, several male eagles are bexoz verlekoz.

Rule 4: The stem of a verb is obtained by omitting the suffix ker from the infinitive form of the
verb.

Example: The stem of the verb tirker is tir.Rule 5: All subjects and their verbs must agree in number; that is, singular subjects require

singular verbs and plural subjects require plural verbs. (See Rules 6 and 7.)

Rule 6: To form the present tense of a verb, add the suffix em to the stem for the singular or the
suffix im to the stem for the plural.
Example: If to bark is nalker then nalem is the present tense for the singular (the dog barks)
and nalim is the present tense for the plural (the dogs bark).

Rule 7: To form the past tense of a verb, first add the suffix zot to the stem, and then add the
suffix em if the verb is singular or the suffix im if it is plural.
Example: If to bark is nalker, then nalzotem is the past tense for the singular (the dog
barked) and nalzotim is the past tense for the plural (the dogs barked).

Rule 8: To form the past participle of a verb, add to the stem of the verb the suffix to. It can be
used to form compound tenses with the verb to have, as a predicate with the verb to be, or as an
adjective. In the last two cases, it takes masculine, feminine, singular and plural forms in
agreement with the noun to which it refers.

An example of use in a compound tense with the verb to have:
If to bark is nalker and to have is tulker, then tulem nalto is the present perfect for the
singular (the dog has barked) and tulim nalto is the present perfect for the plural (the
dogs have barked). Similarly, tulzotem nalto is the past perfect for the singular (the
dog had barked) and tulzotim nalto is the past perfect for the plural (the dogs had
barked).

An example of use as a predicate with the verb to be:

If to adopt is rapker and to be is synker, then a boy was adopted is a ekaplek
synzotem rapto and many girls were adopted is ekapleknefoz synzotim raptonefoz.

An example of use as an adjective:
If to delight is kasker then a delighted boy is a kasto ekaplek and many delighted girls
are kastonefoz ekapleknefoz.

Rule 9: To form a noun from a verb, add the suffix lek to the stem of the verb.
Example: If longker is to write, then a writer is a longlek.

Rule 10: To form an adjective from a noun, substitute the suffix le for the suffix lek.

Example: If pellek is beauty, then a beautiful male eagle is a pelle verlek and a beautiful
female eagle is a pellenef verleknef. (Note the feminine suffix nef.)

Rule 11: To form an adverb from an adjective, add the suffix ki to the masculine form of the
adjective. (Note that adverbs do not change their form to agree in gender or number with the
word they modify.)

Example: If pelle is beautiful, then beautifully is pelleki.

Rule 12: To form the possessive of a noun or pronoun, add the suffix ae to the noun or pronoun
after any plural or feminine suffixes.

Example: If a boglek is a dog, then a dog’s collar is a boglekae collar.
If he is yev, then his book is yevae book.
If she is yevnef, then her book is yevnefae book.

Rule 13: To make a word negative, add the prefix fer to the correct affirmative form.

Example: If an active male eagle is a sojle verlek, an inactive male eagle is a fersojle verlek.
If the dog barks is boglek nalem, then the dog does not bark is the boglek
fernalem.

Leave a Comment more...

Preparing for the Artificial Language Test

Purpose of this Section
The purpose of this section is to help you to prepare for the Artificial Language Test (ALT). This test is intended to assess an applicant’s ability to learn Spanish. The test is based on an artificial language, the rules of which are based on some of the grammatical structures of
Spanish. Because all Border Patrol Agents are required to know the Spanish language, it is important to assess language-learning abilities in all applicants to the Border Patrol Agent occupation who do not already know Spanish. A validation study conducted by the U.S. Office
of Personnel Management and an attrition study conducted at the Border Patrol Academy demonstrated that the ALT is an extremely effective predictor of success in learning Spanish at the Academy. Accordingly, you are encouraged to study this manual with special care and  attention.

This section is designed to allow every opportunity for you to study the grammatical rules of the

Artificial Language prior to taking the ALT. In this way, you can spend concentrated time in
learning to use grammatical rules that you will need to apply not only in the test, but also in the
process of learning Spanish, if you are selected for a Border Patrol Agent (Trainee) position.
Organization of this Section

Section IV contains several parts: vocabulary lists (or dictionary) for the Artificial Language, a
set of grammatical rules, a glossary of grammatical terms (for applicants who do not remember
the meaning of some of these terms), a practice test, which is similar in format and length to the
actual test, and, lastly, a clear and concise explanation of why each response in the test is right or
wrong. This last part should greatly assist you in learning how to apply each of the rules. The
parts of this section are organized in the following sequence.

First: The Vocabulary Lists

The lists of words need not be memorized because during the actual test they will be available to
you for constant consultation.

Second: The Glossary of Grammatical Rules for the Artificial Language

These rules are the essence of the Artificial Language because they are the essence of its
connection to the structures of the Spanish language. There is no need to memorize the rules
because they will be available to you during the test. Also, you should note that some of the
rules will be different in the actual test. For example, if the feminine form of a noun takes the
suffix nef in the rules presented in this manual, in the actual test the feminine form of a noun
may take a different ending.

Third: Glossary of Grammatical Terms

This glossary will provide a refresher mini-course in grammatical terms (such as “verb,”
“noun,” “adjective,” and “adverb”) for applicants who have forgotten the meaning of these
terms. The glossary will also be available for consultation during the actual test. In this section,
however, the meaning of the terms will be discussed in greater depth, and it is therefore
advisable for you to study the discussion here with special attention and concentration.
Fourth: The Practice Test

The practice test is similar, but not exactly the same, in length and format, and in its application
of the grammatical rules to the actual test.

The practice test questions contain tasks that require a correct translation from English to the
Artificial Language and that require the application of grammatical rules to Artificial Language
sentences. In some cases, these tasks involve an entire sentence, while in others they involve
only part of a sentence.

While taking the practice test, you should refer to all the materials described above, that is, to the
vocabulary lists, the grammatical rules for the Artificial Language, and the glossary of
grammatical terms. During the actual test, you will be able to refer to these sources at all times.
When taking the actual test, you will be given two booklets: One (called the “Supplemental
Booklet”) will contain the reference materials (the vocabulary lists, the grammatical rules, and
the glossary of grammatical terms), while the other will contain the test questions. You will have
access to the “Supplemental Booklet” at all times while taking the test, and you will be able to
consult the reference materials in the Supplemental Booklet while answering the test questions.
Therefore, it would be advisable for you to practice using the reference materials while taking
the practice test.

Fifth: The Rationale for Each Response
The last part of this section contains a clear and concise explanation of why each response choice
in the test is right or wrong. Since the test is a multiple-choice test, each response choice must
be evaluated separately. Consequently, it is important for you to know which rule is pertinent to
each response choice. As will be clear from the study of the explanations, some response
choices (those that are correct) conform to the appropriate rules, while the majority of response
choices (those that are incorrect) violate one or more of the rules.

It is very advisable for you to analyze each and every one of the explanations after taking the
practice test. If you find that many of your answers to the test questions are incorrect, it would
be a good idea for you to retake the practice test after (1) studying the rationale for each response
choice, and (2) studying the grammatical rules once again, with more attention to detail.

THE VOCABULARY LISTS
The words on the following lists are the same; they are merely arranged differently, as they
would be in a bilingual dictionary. In the first list, you can look up words in English to find their
equivalent word in the Artificial Language. In the second list, you can look up words in the
Artificial Language to find their equivalent word in English. During the actual test, you will
have the vocabulary lists with you for consultation at all times. Nonetheless, you should note
that the words given below are not the same as those given in the actual test. Therefore, it is best
not to try to memorize them before taking the actual test.

Word List Arranged Alphabetically
by the English Word
Word List Arranged Alphabetically
by the Artificial Language Word
English
Artificial
Language English
Artificial
Language
Artificial
Language English
Artificial
Language English
a, an bex skillful janle almanlek government kaplek man
alien huslek that velle arker to drive kometlek friend
and loa the wir avelek enemy lexker to station
boy ekaplek this volle bex a, an liaker to injure
country failek to be synker bonker to guard loa and
difficult glasle to border regker browlek river mor from
enemy avelek to cross chonker chonker to cross pirker to escape
friend kometlek to drive arker colle legal quea of
from mor to escape pirker daqlek jeep regker to border
government almanlek to guard bonker degker to shoot synker to be
he, him yev to have tulker ekaplek boy tatker to spy
jeep daqlek to identify kalenker failek country trenedlek paper
legal colle to injure liaker frigker to work tulker to have
loyal inle to inspect zelker glasle difficult velle that
man kaplek to shoot degker huslek alien volle this
of quea to spy tatker inle loyal wir the
paper trenedlek to station lexker janle skillful yev he, him
river browlek to work frigker kalenker to identify zelker to inspect

Leave a Comment more...

Sample Questions for the Spanish Language Proficiency Test

INTRODUCTION
Purpose of this Section
The purpose of this Section is to provide you with information about the Spanish Language Proficiency Test. All Border Patrol Agents are required to know the Spanish language. Accordingly, all applicants for the position of Border Patrol Agent are required to take either the  Spanish Language Proficiency Test or the ALT. Applicants who already know Spanish should take the Spanish Language Proficiency Test; all other applicants should take the ALT. The sample questions in this section will make you very familiar with both the type and the difficulty
level of the questions on the Spanish Language Proficiency Test, thus giving you a guide to judge whether you should take the Spanish

Language Proficiency Test or the ALT.

These sample questions and explanations are not intended to teach you enough Spanish to pass the Spanish Language Proficiency Test. The purpose of these questions and explanations is to make you familiar with the types of questions on the Spanish Language Proficiency Test.

Organization of this Section

The Spanish Language Proficiency Test is divided into two parts. The first part consists entirely of vocabulary questions; the second part is divided into three sections, each section dealing with a different type of grammar question. The following pages contain four examples of each type of question included in the Spanish Language Proficiency Test.

 

Sample Questions for the Spanish Language Proficiency Test

Read the sentence and then choose the most appropriate synonym for the underlined
word.
1. Es muy complicado pilotar mi avión.

A) fácil
B) difícil
C) divertido
D) compilado
E) comparado

The word complicado means complicated. In the context of the sentence, it refers to
something that is hard to do. Hence, response B, difícil (“difficult”), is the best synonym.
Response A, fácil (“easy”), is opposite in meaning to complicado. Response C,
divertido, has the same beginning syllable (“di-”) as the correct answer, but its meaning
(“amusing”) is completely different. The basic meanings of responses D and E
(“compiled” and “compared,” respectively) are completely different from the meaning of
complicado, although both compilado and comparado are phonetically similar to it.

2. Es fácil comprender lo que el agente está diciendo.

A) responder
B) comprobar
C) entender
D) pretender
E) desentender

The word comprender means to understand something after watching, listening to, or
reading it. Hence, response C, entender (“to understand”), is the best synonym.
Response E, desentender, is the exact opposite of the correct answer; in fact, it is
entender, but with a negative prefix added to it, thus giving it the meaning of “to
misunderstand.” Responses A, B, and D (“to respond,” “to verify,” and “to pretend”) are
completely unrelated to the meaning of comprender.

3. Hay que esclarecer todo el proceso.

A) encontrar
B) concentrar
C) aclarar
D) empeorar
E) aplastar

The word esclarecer means to clarify. Hence, response C, aclarar (“to clarify”), is the
best synonym. Responses A, B, D, and E (“to find,” “to concentrate,” “to worsen,” and
“to crush”) are completely unrelated to the meaning of esclarecer.

4. Hemos otorgado concesiones especiales a los países en vías de desarrollo.

A) privilegios
B) determinaciones
C) estipendios
D) cortesías
E) ofrendas

The word concesiones means concessions, rights or privileges that have been granted.
Hence, response A, privilegios (“privileges”) is the best synonym. Responses B, C, D,
and E (“determinations,” “stipends,” “courtesies,” and “offerings”) are completely
unrelated to the meaning of concesiones.

PART II
Section I
Read each sentence carefully. Select the appropriate word or phrase to fill each blank
space.

1. Me gusta entrar la puerta que está de la oficina.

A) a, sobre
B) en, desde
C) con, bajo
D) en, al lado
E) por, detrás

The correct answer is response E, por, detrás. Responses A, B, C, and D all use
incorrect prepositions.

2. La agente me la correspondencia cuando yo no en casa.

A) traido, estoy
B) traer, estuviera
C) trajo, estaba
D) traerá, habré estado
E) habrá traido, estar

The correct answer is response C, trajo, estaba, because both verbs represent the
correct past tense in the indicative mood (preterite indefinite trajo and preterite imperfect
estaba). In responses A, B, D, and E, the wrong forms of the verb have been used.

3. Los oficiales _______ usan la sala de reuniones para discutir asuntos ______.

A) sumariamente / difícil
B) frecuentemente / variadas
C) normalmente / diversos
D) rara vez / personal
E) ocasionalmente / unilateral

Choice C is the correct answer. The adverb normalmente (“normally”) correctly
modifies the verb usan (“[they] use”), and the plural, masculine adjective diversos
(“diverse”) agrees in gender and number with the noun it modifies (“asuntos”). In
responses A, D, and E, there is no agreement in number between adjective and noun.
In response B, there is no agreement in gender between adjective and noun.

4. ________ a los detenidos y ________ al tanto de los resultados.

A) Visita / pónlos
B) Visite / ponerlos
C) Visitaré / ponga
D) Habré visitado / pondré
E) Visitando / había puesto

Response A is the correct answer. The two imperative verb forms [tú] visita and [tú]
pónlos are the correct choices. In responses B, C, D, and E, there is no agreement
between the two main verbs.

Section II
Read each sentence carefully. Select the one sentence that is correct.

1. A) Todos los agentes coincidieron del sospechoso cuando entrarían por la puerta.
B) El sospechoso que entró fue señalado en la puerta con los agentes coincidiendo.
C) Todos los agentes señalaron al mismo sospechoso cuando entró por la puerta.
D) Todos los agentes coincidió en señalar al sospechoso cuando entrarán por la
puerta.

The correct answer to this item is response C because it has the proper sentence
structure (subject, verb, direct object) and contains no errors. Responses A, B, and D
contain various errors, including incorrect prepositions, illogical structures, or incorrect
verb forms; hence, none of them can be the correct answer.

2. A) La inmigración ilegal y el contrabando suponen un gran problema para
muchos países.
B) La inmigración ilegal y el contrabando supongo un problema grande para
muchos países.
C) Muchos países con gran problemas suponían la inmigración ilegal y el
contrabando.
D) La inmigración ilegales y el contrabando suponen un gran problema para
muchos países.

The correct answer to this item is response A because it has the proper sentence
structure (subject, verb, direct object, indirect object) and contains no errors.
Responses B, C, and D contain various errors, including incorrect terms, illogical
structures, or incorrect verb forms; hence, none of these responses can be the correct
answer.

3. A) Como el agente sabía que andando es bueno para la salud, andaría unos veinte
minutos antes de iniciar el entrenamiento oficial.
B) Como el agente sabía que andar es bueno para la salud, anduvo unos veinte
minutos antes de iniciar el entrenamiento oficial.
C) Andaría unos veinte minutos como andar es bueno sabía el agente antes de
iniciar el entrenamiento oficial.
D) Que andar es bueno para la salud unos veinte minutos antes de había iniciado el
entrenamiento oficial el agente sabía que andaría.
The correct answer to this item is response B because it has the proper sentence
structure (subject, verb, direct object) and contains no errors. Responses A, C, and D
contain various errors, including incorrect terms, misplaced clauses, or disagreement of
verb tenses; hence, none of these responses can be the correct answer.

4. A) Aunque hay países donde existen varias agrupaciones de derechos humanos
que se preocupan por velar sobre las garantías individuales y que resultan muy
efectivas en ciertas sociedades en que su esfera de influencia es muy limitada o
casi nula.
B) Existen varias agrupaciones internacionales de derechos humanos que se
preocupan por velar sobre las garantías individuales y que resultan muy
efectivas en ciertas sociedades, aunque hay países en que su esfera de
influencia es muy limitada o casi nula.
C) Existen de derechos humanos varias agrupaciones internacionales que se
preocupan por velar sobre las garantías individuales, aunque hay países en que
su esfera de influencia que resultan muy efectivas en ciertas sociedades es muy
limitada o casi nula.
D) Hay países en que existen varias agrupaciones internacionales de derechos
humanos y que resultan muy efectivas en ciertas sociedades aunque que se
preocupan por velar sobre las garantías individuales en que su esfera de
influencia es muy limitada o casi nula.

The correct answer to this item is response B because it has the proper sentence
structure (subject, verb, direct object, indirect object) and contains no errors.
Responses A, C, and D contain misplaced clauses; hence, none of these responses
can be the correct answer.

Section III
Read each sentence carefully. Select the correct word or phrase to replace the
underlined portions of the sentence. In those cases in which the sentence needs no
correction, select alternative (E).

1. Los agentes detectaron el contrabando antes de abrir la maleta.

A) abriendo
B) abrirá
C) abriremos
D) abrió
E) No es necesario hacer ninguna corrección.

The correct answer to this item is response E because the infinitive form of the verb,
abrir, must be used after the preposition de. Incorrect forms of the verb have been used
in the other responses; namely, response A (gerund), response B (future imperfect),
response C (future imperfect), and response D (preterite indefinite).

2. Es necesario tener todo las documentos de identificación en regla.

A) todos las
B) todo el
C) todas las
D) todos los
E) No es necesario hacer ninguna corrección.

The correct answer is response D because todos los is plural in number and masculine
in gender, and is thus in agreement with documentos. Responses A, B, and C have
either the wrong gender or the wrong number.

3. Los manuales hemos abarcado un sinnúmero de posibilidades y hemos abreviado

el tiempo que se necesita para completar los trámites.
A) abarcando / abreviando
B) abarcados / abreviados
C) abarcó / abrevió
D) abarcan / abrevian
E) No es necesario hacer ninguna corrección.

Response D is the correct answer because the two verbs in the third person plural
[abarcan (“cover”) and abrevian (“shorten”)] agree with the masculine plural subject
manuales (“manuals”).

Responses A and B use incorrect verb forms (gerund and participle). In responses C
and E, there is no agreement between verbs and subject.

4. Los que abastecen las cocinas de las unidades de rescate anoche trajeron
magníficas provisiones.

A) habían abastecido / lentamente
B) abasteciendo / no
C) abastecieran / mañana
D) abastezco / arriba
E) No es necesario hacer ninguna corrección.

Response E is the correct answer because the present indicative verb abastecen
(“[they] supply”) agrees with the preterite indefinite trajeron (“[they] brought”) after the
correctly selected adverb anoche (“last night”). In response A, the adverb of manner
lentamente (“slowly”) is incorrect. Responses B and C use the wrong verb form.
Response D does not have agreement in number between subject and verb.

Leave a Comment more...

Answers to Logical Reasoning Practice Test

1. Correct Answer: B) some jurisdictions still distinguish between crimes malum in se and
malum prohibitum.

This question is concerned with classification of crimes into sets—that is, with the classification
of crimes as either malum in se or malum prohibitum. The last phrase in the last sentence tells us
that many jurisdictions make the distinction between these two categories of crimes. Response B
follows from that sentence, because if many jurisdictions make the distinction, some jurisdictions
make the distinction. From the fact that many jurisdictions make the distinction, it cannot be
inferred that many do not make the distinction. Therefore, Response A is incorrect.
Responses C, D, and E are based on erroneous definitions of the two classes of crimes. The
paragraph tells us that all crimes characterized as malum in se are inherently evil. Response C is
false because it cannot be the case that SOME crimes characterized as malum in se are NOT
inherently evil. The paragraph also tells us that all crimes characterized as malum prohibitum are
declared as offenses by a legislature. Response D is false because it cannot be the case that SOME
crimes characterized as malum prohibitum are NOT declared by a legislature to be an offense. In
the paragraph, we are told that filing a tax return late is malum prohibitum, rather than malum in se.
Response E is incorrect because it cannot be the case that failing to file a tax return is malum in se.

2. Correct Answer: C) If Claus Inc. can show that it was not negligent, then it is not liable.

The second sentence states the liability rule for common carriers: all common carriers are liable
for cargo damage unless they can show that they are not negligent; if they can show that they are
not negligent, then they are not liable for cargo damage. Claus Inc. is a common carrier, and
accordingly this rule applies to it. From this rule it follows that if Claus Inc. can show it was not
negligent, then it is not liable, Response C. Response A contradicts this rule by claiming that
when Claus Inc. is liable it can show that it was not negligent. Response B contradicts this rule
by claiming that Claus Inc. is not liable even when it cannot show that it is not negligent.
Responses D and E concern Nichols Inc., a contract carrier. However, the terms of the Nichols
Inc. contract were not disclosed in the paragraph, so neither response is supported.

3. Correct Answer: A) some e-mail messages that have been requested as part of
investigations have contained messages that would never be said face-to-face.

This is an example of a test question with a negative lead-in statement. It asks for the conclusion
that is NOT supported by the paragraph. That means that four of the statements are valid
conclusions from the paragraph while one is not. Response B (some messages that people would
never say face-to-face are sent in e-mail messages) is a valid conclusion because it restates a fact
given in the last sentence of the paragraph. Response E (some e-mail messages contain
information that would be omitted from formal writing) is valid because it restates the other fact
in the last sentence of the paragraph.

The next-to-last sentence in the paragraph is the source of both response C (some e-mail
messages have been requested as part of investigations) and response D (e-mail messages have
not been exempted from investigations). Both of these choices restate information in that
sentence, based on the fact that access to e-mail messages was sought and granted. This leaves
only the first option, response A (Some e-mail messages that have been requested as part of
investigations have contained messages that would never be said face-to-face). This is the only
choice that does NOT represent a valid conclusion, because even though we know from the
paragraph that there is a group of e-mail messages that are requested in investigations and also
that there is a group of messages that contain information that people would not say face-to-face,
there is nothing that says that these groups overlap. We simply do not know.

4. Correct Answer: B) Phyllis T. was not married and had no dependents.

This question concerns an either/or situation. The paragraph states that benefits under the Federal
Employees Compensation Act are awarded at one level (3/4 of salary) if a beneficiary is married
or has dependents when injured and at another level (2/3 of salary) if this is not true.
Phyllis T. is eligible for benefits under the Act. The paragraph states that Phyllis T.’s benefit
level was 2/3 of her salary. Given this benefit level, it is clear that Phyllis T. did not meet either
of the conditions for the 3/4 level. Therefore, responses A, C, and D cannot be correct (A states
that she was married, C states that she had dependents, and D states that she both was married
and had dependents). Response E goes beyond the facts given because prior marriages are not
listed as a factor relating to this benefit. The one correct conclusion is that Phyllis T. did not
meet either requirement to qualify for the higher benefit level (3/4 of salary), so response B is the
correct answer to the question.

5. Correct Answer: E) some of the engineers were immigrants

Response E is correct because it restates the third sentence in terms of the overlap between
immigrants and engineers in the country described in the paragraph. Response A says that most
immigrants are engineers or nurses, which are professional occupations. However, the second
sentence says that most immigrants are not employed in professional occupations, so Response A
is false. Response B is false because it denies that there is any overlap between immigrants and
nurses, even though this overlap is clear from the third sentence of the paragraph. Response C is
false because it denies the overlap between immigrants and engineers. Because the paragraph
does not give complete information about the non-professionals (immigrant and non-immigrant)
in the country described in the paragraph, Response D is invalid.

6. Correct Answer: D) all of the .45 caliber weapons were sold legally

The second and last sentences are the two main premises in the paragraph. These two sentences
give information about three categories of weapons: weapons made by Precision Arms, weapons
sold legally, and .45 caliber weapons.

The last sentence states that none of the illegally sold weapons were .45 caliber. This means that
none of the .45 caliber weapons were sold illegally. Notice that this new statement is a double
negative. In affirmative form the statement means that all of the .45 caliber weapons were sold
legally, Choice D.

The information that all of the .45 caliber weapons were sold legally (last sentence), combined
with the information that all of the weapons made by Precision Arms were sold legally (second
sentence), allows us to draw no valid conclusions about the relationship between the .45 caliber
weapons and the weapons made by Precision Arms. There is insufficient information about the
entire group of weapons sold legally to know whether the group of .45 caliber weapons and the
group of weapons made by Precision Arms overlapped entirely (Choice A), partially (Choice C),
or not at all (Choice B).

Choice E contradicts the second sentence and is, therefore, invalid.

7. Correct Answer: C) if fingerprints are decipherable, then it is impossible to identify the
person to whom they belong

This question asks for the response option that cannot be validly concluded from the information
in the paragraph. The only response option that cannot be validly concluded is Response C, so
the correct answer to question 7 is Response C. Response C is invalid because the paragraph
does not provide enough information to conclude whether or not it would be possible to identify
the person to whom the fingerprints belong from the mere fact that the fingerprints are
decipherable.

Response A refers to a condition where it is possible to identify the person to whom fingerprints
belong. Based on the final sentence in the paragraph, this condition of fingerprints means that
the fingerprints could be classified by general shape and contour or by pattern type. Based on
the second sentence, the ability to classify the fingerprints means that the fingerprints are
decipherable.

Since Response B refers to a condition in which finger patterns from fingerprints are not
decipherable, we know from the second sentence that, in that circumstance, they cannot be
classified by general shape and contour or by pattern type. From the final sentence in the
paragraph, we can infer that since they cannot be classified by these characteristics, then it is
impossible to identify the person to whom the fingerprints belong.

According to the second sentence, fingerprints cannot be classified by general shape and contour
or by pattern type when they are not decipherable. Therefore, if fingerprints can be classified by
general shape and contour or by pattern type, then the fingerprints must be decipherable,

Response D. According to the third sentence, it is impossible to identify the owner of a set of
fingerprints when the fingerprints cannot be classified by general shape and contour or by pattern
type. Therefore, if it is possible to identify the person to whom fingerprints belong, then the
fingerprints must be able to be classified by general shape and contour or pattern type, Response
E. Notice that Responses D and E are valid based on the same type of reasoning. The first and
second statements of the second sentence were made opposite and reversed in Response D, and
the first and second statements of the final sentence were made opposite and reversed in
Response E.

8. Correct Answer: E) some devices in which a physical reaction is produced, such as that
caused by overloading a container with compressed air, are mechanical explosives

The correct answer is E. The third sentence states the overlap between all mechanical explosives
and devices in which a physical reaction is produced, such as that caused by overloading a
container with compressed air. From this, we can safely conclude that some devices in which a
physical reaction is produced, such as that caused by overloading a container with compressed
air, are mechanical explosives.

Response A is incorrect because the paragraph does not provide sufficient information to validly
conclude that all explosives which have been restricted to military weapons are nuclear weapons.
It may be that some types of explosives other than nuclear weapons also have been restricted to
military weapons.

Responses B and C are incorrect because they contradict the paragraph. Response B contradicts
the third sentence, and Response C contradicts the last sentence.

Response D is incorrect because the paragraph provides no information about whether or not
mechanical explosives are restricted to military weapons.

Leave a Comment more...

Logical Reasoning Practice Test

In questions 1 through 8, some questions will ask you to select the only answer that can be
validly concluded from the paragraph. These questions include a paragraph followed by five
response options. Preceding the five response options will be the phrase “From the information
given above, it can be validly concluded that.” In other questions you may be asked to select the
only answer that cannot be validly concluded from the paragraph. These questions include a
paragraph followed by five response options. Preceding the five response options will be the
phrase “From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that.”

You must use only the information provided in the paragraph, without using any outside information whatsoever.

It is suggested that you take not more than 20 minutes to complete questions 1 through 8. The
questions on this practice test will not be on the real test, but the real questions will be similar in
form and difficulty to these. The explanations for the correct and incorrect responses are found
after the sample questions.

1. Often, crimes are characterized as either malum in se—inherently evil—or malum prohibitum—
criminal because they are declared as offenses by a legislature. Murder is an example of the former.
Failing to file a tax return illustrates the latter. Some jurisdictions no longer distinguish between
crimes malum in se and malum prohibitum, although many still do.
From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) many jurisdictions no longer distinguish between crimes malum in se and malum prohibitum
B) some jurisdictions still distinguish between crimes malum in se and malum prohibitum
C) some crimes characterized as malum in se are not inherently evil
D) some crimes characterized as malum prohibitum are not declared by a legislature to be an offense
E) sometimes failing to file a tax return is characterized as malum in se

2. A trucking company can act as a common carrier—for hire to the general public at published rates.
As a common carrier, it is liable for any cargo damage, unless the company can show that it was not
negligent. If the company can demonstrate that it was not negligent, then it is not liable for cargo
damage. In contrast, a contract carrier (a trucking company hired by a shipper under a specific
contract) is only responsible for cargo damage as spelled out in the contract. A Claus Inc. tractortrailer, acting under common carrier authority, was in a 5-vehicle accident that damaged its cargo. A
Nichols Inc. tractor-trailer, acting under contract carrier authority, was involved in the same accident,
and its cargo was also damaged.
From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, in reference to the accident,

A) if Claus Inc. is liable, then it can show that it was not negligent
B) if Claus Inc. cannot show that it was not negligent, then it is not liable
C) if Claus Inc. can show that it was not negligent, then it is not liable
D) if Nichols Inc. is liable, then it cannot show that it is negligent
E) if Nichols Inc. can show that it is not negligent, then it is not liable

3. A rapidly changing technical environment in government is promoting greater reliance on electronic
mail (e-mail) systems. As this usage grows, there are increasing chances of conflict between the
users’ expectations of privacy and public access rights. In some investigations, access to all e-mail,
including those messages stored in archival files and messages outside the scope of the investigation,
has been sought and granted. In spite of this, some people send messages through e-mail that would
never be said face-to-face or written formally.
From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) some e-mail messages that have been requested as part of investigations have contained messages
that would never be said face-to-face
B) some messages that people would never say face-to-face are sent in e-mail messages
C) some e-mail messages have been requested as part of investigations
D) e-mail messages have not been exempted from investigations
E) some e-mail messages contain information that would be omitted from formal writing

4. Phyllis T. is a former Federal employee who was entitled to benefits under the Federal Employee
Compensation Act because of a job-related, disabling injury. When an eligible Federal employee has
such an injury, the benefit is determined by this test: If the beneficiary is married or has dependents,
benefits are 3/4 of the person’s salary at the time of the injury; otherwise, benefits are set at 2/3 of the
salary. Phyllis T.’s benefits were 2/3 of her salary when she was injured.
From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, when Phyllis T. was injured, she

A) was married but without dependents
B) was not married and had no dependents
C) was not married but had dependents
D) was married and had dependents
E) had never been married

5. Some 480,000 immigrants were living in a certain country in 1999. Although most of these
immigrants were not employed in professional occupations, many of them were. For instance, many
of them were engineers and many of them were nurses. Very few of these immigrants were
librarians, another professional occupation.
From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, in 1999, in the country described
above,

A) most immigrants were either engineers or nurses
B) it is not the case that some of the nurses were immigrants
C) none of the engineers were immigrants
D) most of those not employed in professional occupations were immigrants
E) some of the engineers were immigrants

6. Police officers were led to believe that many weapons sold at a certain gun store were sold illegally.
Upon investigating the lead, the officers learned that all of the weapons sold by the store that were
made by Precision Arms were sold legally. Also, none of the illegally sold weapons were .45 caliber.
From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, concerning the weapons sold at
the store,

A) all of the .45 caliber weapons were made by Precision Arms
B) none of the .45 caliber weapons were made by Precision Arms
C) some of the weapons made by Precision Arms were .45 caliber weapons
D) all of the .45 caliber weapons were sold legally
E) some of the weapons made by Precision Arms were sold illegally

7. Impressions made by the ridges on the ends of the fingers and thumbs are useful means of
identification, since no two persons have the same pattern of ridges. If finger patterns from
fingerprints are not decipherable, then they cannot be classified by general shape and contour or by
pattern type. If they cannot be classified by these characteristics, then it is impossible to identify the
person to whom the fingerprints belong.
From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that

A) if it is possible to identify the person to whom fingerprints belong, then the fingerprints are
decipherable
B) if finger patterns from fingerprints are not decipherable, then it is impossible to identify the
person to whom the fingerprints belong
C) if fingerprints are decipherable, then it is impossible to identify the person to whom they belong
D) if fingerprints can be classified by general shape and contour or by pattern type, then they are
decipherable
E) if it is possible to identify the person to whom fingerprints belong, then the fingerprints can be
classified by general shape and contour or pattern type

8. Explosives are substances or devices capable of producing a volume of rapidly expanding gases that
exert a sudden pressure on their surroundings. Chemical explosives are the most commonly used,
although there are mechanical and nuclear explosives. All mechanical explosives are devices in
which a physical reaction is produced, such as that caused by overloading a container with
compressed air. While nuclear explosives are by far the most powerful, all nuclear explosives have
been restricted to military weapons.
From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that

A) all explosives that have been restricted to military weapons are nuclear explosives
B) no mechanical explosives are devices in which a physical reaction is produced, such as that
caused by overloading a container with compressed air
C) some nuclear explosives have not been restricted to military weapons
D) all mechanical explosives have been restricted to military weapons
E) some devices in which a physical reaction is produced, such as that caused by overloading a
container with compressed air, are mechanical explosives

Leave a Comment more...

Preparing for Logical Reasoning Questions

Logical Reasoning
Reasoning is the single most important competency for successful performance in Border Patrol
jobs (and in other jobs in the economy). Correct reasoning is useful for decision making and
problem solving, activities that prevail on the job. In this part, you will read some useful
information about reasoning correctly.

The questions in this examination are designed to test your ability to understand complicated
written material and to derive correct conclusions from it. The kind of reading that these
questions ask you to do is different from ordinary reading in which you just follow the general
meaning of a series of sentences to see what the writer thinks about a topic. It is the kind of
reading you have to do with complex material when you intend to take some action or draw
some conclusion based on that material.

The test asks you to make logical conclusions based on facts you are given in various
paragraphs. These conclusions need to be based only on the facts in the paragraph. Therefore,
answering requires careful reading and focused thought about what information is given and
what information is not given.

The following information will give you some suggestions about how to approach the questions
and some information about how you can develop your reasoning skills.

Reading the Paragraph
Every reading paragraph in the test is drawn from some kind of written material relating to
Border Patrol or government work. There may be facts in a paragraph that do not actually apply
to every part of the Federal Government or that may not always be true everywhere. In
answering the questions, it is important that you accept every fact in the paragraph as true.
Remember that you are not being judged on your knowledge of facts, but rather on your ability
to read and reason on the basis of given facts.

Not all information is the same kind of information. There can be information about events or
situations, and there can be information about individuals and groups (or categories). It is
important to examine information in the paragraph closely to determine what kind of information
it is. Is the information about two or more categories of things? Is the information about how
two events or situations are linked together? It is also important to recognize whether the
information is positive or negative. Usually, information is positive (for example, “these tire
tracks are several days old”), but knowledge that something is not the case is also useful
information (for example, “these tire tracks are not from a truck”).

Reading the Lead-In or Basic Question
In this test, you will find a paragraph, followed by a lead-in phrase that asks you to complete a
sentence by choosing one of several response options labeled from (A) to (E). The lead-in
phrase may be either positive or negative: “From the information given above, it can be validly
concluded that” or “From the information given above, it CANNOT be validly concluded that.”
It is important to focus on the lead-in phrase at the beginning of a question to determine whether
it is positive or negative. Do not skim over the lead-in phrase.

Positive lead-in phrases are followed by four invalid conclusions and one valid conclusion. Your
task is to find the valid one. Negative lead-in phrases, by contrast, are followed by four valid
conclusions and only one invalid conclusion. The task in these questions is to determine what
cannot be validly concluded based on the facts in the paragraph.

The lead-in phrase may also limit the possible answers in some way. For example, a lead-in
phrase such as “From the information given above, it can be validly concluded that, during the
1990’s in California” means that there might be different answers based on other times and
places, but for the purpose of the test question, only conditions in California during the 1990’s
(as described in the paragraph) should be considered.

Reasoning About Groups or Categories
As was stated before, not all information is the same kind of information. There can be
information about events or situations, and there can be information about individuals and groups
(or categories). This part of Section II discusses how to deal with information about groups or
categories.

“All” Statements
A statement about two groups that begins with the words “all” or “every” gives you some
important information about how the two groups are related. The words “all” and “every” tell
you that everything in the first group is also in the second group. For example, in the statement,
“All the law enforcement officers on the case are Federal law enforcement officers,” the first
group, consisting of law enforcement officers on the case, is totally included in the second group,
consisting of Federal law enforcement officers.

The “all” statement does not provide sufficient information to determine whether or not all
members of the second group are included in the first group. Suppose that a librarian told you
“All the books on this set of shelves are about law enforcement.” From this information, you
might be tempted to conclude that all of the library’s books on law enforcement (the second
group) are on that set of shelves (the first group), but this conclusion is invalid. The books on
those shelves might only be part of the entire group of books on law enforcement. The sentence
does NOT provide information on whether or not other law enforcement books are placed
elsewhere in the library. The following examples provide an “all” statement (all of Group A are
Group B) followed by an invalid “all” statement (all of Group B are Group A). To develop a
good grasp of this concept, try to create some examples of your own.

True: All the people at my party speak Spanish.
Therefore, Invalid: All the people who speak Spanish are at my party.
True: All Supreme Court justices are lawyers.
Therefore, Invalid: All lawyers are Supreme Court justices.
True: All U.S. Presidents were elected.
Therefore, Invalid: All officials who were elected are U.S. Presidents.
True: Every U.S. Border Patrol Agent works for the U.S. Government.
Therefore, Invalid: Everyone working for the U.S. Government is a U.S. Border Patrol Agent.
True: Every U.S. Senator is a member of the U.S. Congress.
Therefore, Invalid: Every member of the U.S. Congress is a U.S. Senator.
Every “all” statement provides sufficient information to determine that at least some members of
the second group are included in the first group. Returning to our previous examples, we can
validly conclude that “some Federal law enforcement officers are on the case” and that “some of
the books about law enforcement are on this set of shelves.” Developing numerous examples on
your own of a true “all” statement (all of Group A are Group B) and a “some” statement (some
of Group B are Group A) will help you to develop a mastery of this concept.

More examples:
True: All the people at my party speak Spanish.
Therefore, Valid: Some people who speak Spanish are at my party.
True: All Supreme Court justices are lawyers.
Therefore, Valid: Some lawyers are Supreme Court justices.
True: All U.S. Presidents were elected.
Therefore, Valid: Some officials who were elected are U.S. Presidents.
True: Every U.S. Border Patrol Agent works for the U.S. Government.
Therefore, Valid: Some employees of the U.S. Government are U.S. Border Patrol Agents.
True: Every U.S. Senator is a member of the U.S. Congress.
Therefore, Valid: Some members of the U.S. Congress are U.S. Senators.

Reasoning From “None” and “Not” Statements
Information that something is NOT true is useful information. For example, you may learn that
one group of things is NOT part of another group of things. This is the same as saying that there
is no overlap at all between the two groups of things. Here, you can draw conclusions about
either group as it relates to the other since you can count on the fact that the two groups have no
members in common. If you can say that no reptiles are warm-blooded, you can also say that no
warm-blooded creatures are reptiles because you know that the first statement means that there is
no overlap between the two groups. In the test, you will see phrases or terms such as “It is not
the case that” or “Not all of” or words that begin with the prefix “non-.” All of these are ways to
say that a negative fact has been established.

Sometimes, our ordinary speech habits can cause us to jump to conclusions. Most people would
not make a statement such as “Some of the pizza has no pepperoni” unless they are trying to
suggest at the same time that some of the pizza does have pepperoni. By contrast, a detective
might make a statement such as “some of the bloodstains were not human blood” simply because
only part of the samples had come back from the laboratory. The detective is trying to suggest
that at least some of the bloodstains were not human blood. The rest of the bloodstains might or
might not be human blood.

As you work through the practice test, think about each negative phrase or term you find. Take
care to assume only as much as is definitely indicated by the facts as given, and no more.

Reasoning About Parts of a Group
The term “some” refers to a part of a larger group. For example, in the statement “Some agents
are taking specialized training,” the term “some agents” refers to a portion of the group of all
agents. You should note, however, that the fact that we know that “some agents are taking
specialized training” implies nothing about the remaining portion of the set of agents: other
agents may or may not be taking specialized training. Unless information is provided in the
paragraph to the contrary, treat “some” as meaning “at least some.”

Statements that refer to a portion of a set may contain other terms such as “most,” “a few,” or
“almost all.” Also, as discussed in the previous section, they can be negative, as in “Many
agents are not fluent in French.” From this statement you may be tempted to infer that there are
at least a few agents who are fluent in French, but that would be jumping to a conclusion. From
this statement alone, you do not know about the entire group of agents and whether or not they
are fluent in French. In these cases, you should remember that the term refers only to a part of
the group and that from this information on part of the group you cannot infer anything about the
rest of the group. Unfortunately, neglecting this principle of sound reasoning can cause costly
errors.

When you see a paragraph describing parts of a group, read the paragraph carefully to see if that
description is based on knowledge of the entire group or only on knowledge of part of the group.

Reasoning About “If-Then” Statements
As was said before, there can be information about events or situations, and there can be
information about individuals and groups. Previously, Section II discussed how to deal with
information about groups. Next, Section II will discuss how to deal with information about the
relationship between events or situations.

We are all familiar with the idea of a chain of events in which one thing leads to another thing,
which in turn leads to a third thing, and so on. For example, “if a person is convicted of
possession of a gram of marijuana in Aker County, that person is guilty of a misdemeanor, and
persons found guilty of a misdemeanor in Aker County are fined by the court.” It is easy to see
that one can think backward and forward along this chain.

Thinking forward means that, when the first thing happens, the later events will follow. For
example, if you learn that Bill is convicted of possession of a gram of marijuana in Aker County,
you know that Bill is guilty of a misdemeanor. Furthermore, if you know that Bill is guilty of a
misdemeanor in Aker County, you know that Bill will be fined by the court.

Thinking backward means that if later events do not occur, the earlier events did not occur. For
example, if you know that Bill has never been fined by the court in Aker County, you know that
he has not been found guilty of a misdemeanor there. Furthermore, by reasoning backward from
the fact that Bill has not been found guilty of a misdemeanor in Aker County, you know that he
has never been convicted of possession of a gram of marijuana there.

The wording we typically use to indicate this kind of linkage between events includes the simple
“if-then” sentence in which the first event is in a statement tagged by “if” and the second event is
in a statement tagged by “then.” An example would be the sentence “if Chris gets assigned to
the Bike Patrol, then the Bike Patrol will need additional equipment.” We also use the same
language to describe signs that such a linkage has already happened. An example of that
structure would be the sentence “If there are tracks on the ground, then people passed through
this area on foot.”

There are other ways of wording this relationship, however. When a sentence starts with the
word “whenever,” it means that a linkage between two events is being described: “Whenever I
hear that song, I think about the beach.” The phrases “each time” or “every time” suggest the
same thing: “Every time there is a power surge, my computer switches off.”

It is important to realize that you cannot validly switch the order of the two statements in this
type of sentence. If you do, your conclusion may be wrong and may lead to costly errors in reallife situations. For example, you learn that “If the jet engines are reversed (the first statement),
the speed of the plane will decrease very rapidly (the second statement).” From this information,
you cannot validly infer that “If the speed of the plane decreases very rapidly (the second
statement), then the jet engines have been reversed (the first statement)”. The following
examples start with a true “if-then” sentence, followed by an invalid “if-then” sentence with the
first and second statements reversed.

True: If a person is a Border Patrol Agent, the person is an employee of the U.S.
Government.
Therefore, Invalid: If a person is an employee of the U.S. Government, the person is a Border
Patrol Agent.
True: If a criminal receives a pardon, the criminal will be released.
Therefore, Invalid: If a criminal is released, the criminal has received a pardon.
True: If a person is convicted of murder, that person is guilty of a felony.
Therefore, Invalid: If a person is guilty of a felony, that person has been convicted of murder.
True: If a person lives in Germany, the person lives in Europe.
Therefore, Invalid: If a person lives in Europe, the person lives in Germany.
True: If a car has no gas, the car will not run.
Therefore, Invalid: If a car does not run, the car has no gas.

You can, however, validly reverse the order of these two statements when the statements are
made opposite (that is, negated). For example, you learn that “If the jet engines are reversed (the
first statement), the speed of the plane will decrease very rapidly (the second statement).” From
this information, you can validly infer that “If the speed of the plane does not decrease very
rapidly (the negation or opposite of the second statement), then the jet engines have not been
reversed (the negation or opposite of the first statement)”. The following examples start with a
true “if-then” sentence, followed by a true (or valid) “if-then” sentence with the first and second
statements made opposite (negated) and reversed in order.

True: If a person is a Border Patrol Agent, the person is an employee of the U.S.
Government.
Therefore, True: If a person is not an employee of the U.S. Government, the person is not a
Border Patrol Agent.
True: If a criminal receives a pardon, the criminal will be released.
Therefore, True: If a criminal is not released, the criminal has not received a pardon.
True: If a person is convicted of murder, that person is guilty of a felony.
Therefore, True: If a person is not guilty of a felony, that person has not been convicted of
murder.
True: If a person lives in Germany, the person lives in Europe.
Therefore, True: If a person does not live in Europe, the person does not live in Germany.
True: If a car has no gas, the car will not run.
Therefore, True: If a car runs, the car has gas.
You cannot infer the opposite of the second statement from the opposite of the first statement.
For example, you cannot validly infer that “If the jet engines are not reversed (the opposite of the
first statement), then the speed of the plane does not decrease very rapidly (the opposite of the
second statement)”. The following examples start with a true “if-then” sentence followed by an
invalid “if-then” sentence made of the opposite of the first and second statements.
True: If a person is a Border Patrol Agent, the person is an employee of the U.S.
Government.
Therefore, Invalid: If a person is not a Border Patrol Agent, the person is not an employee of
the U.S. Government.
True: If a criminal receives a pardon, the criminal will be released.
Therefore, Invalid: If a criminal does not receive a pardon, the criminal will not be released.
True: If a person is convicted of murder, that person is guilty of a felony.
Therefore, Invalid: If a person is not convicted of murder, that person is not guilty of a felony.
True: If a person lives in Germany, the person lives in Europe.
Therefore, Invalid: If a person does not live in Germany, the person does not live in Europe.
True: If a car has no gas, the car will not run.
Therefore, Invalid: If a car has gas, the car will run.

A Few Final Cautions About Wording
There are test preparation classes that train people to take tests. In some of these courses,
students are advised against choosing any answer in a reasoning test if it starts with the word
“all” or the word “none.” This is supposed to be useful advice because it is believed that most
correct answers strike a balance between extremes and usually do not cover subjects that can be
summarized in sentences beginning with “all” or “none.” If you have heard this advice before,
you should ignore it for this test. “All” statements and “none” statements occur in real-life
situations and, consequently, you will be asked to work with them in this test in the reading
paragraphs as well as in both correct and incorrect responses.

In general, you should pay attention to any words that provide information on groups or on
linked events. This includes a wide range of negative words (such as “seldom” or “never” or
“illegal” or “prohibited”) and negative prefixes (such as “non-” “un-” or “dis-”). It also includes
positive words (such as “all” or “some” or “most” or “always”). You should also watch for
connectors such as “whenever” or “unless” or “except,” since these words sometimes contain
key information about relations among the facts given in the paragraph.

English is a language that ordinarily uses single negatives. The word “not,” by itself, does the
job of making a formal English sentence into its opposite: “That bird is NOT an eagle.” On this
test, if you read a sentence such as “The cord is not wound,” it means the cord is still unwound.
When an English sentence has two negatives, the sentence has a positive meaning. For example,
a sentence that reads “This application is NOT unworthy” means that the application IS worthy.
The sentence “The bell did ring” could be stated “It is NOT the case that the bell did NOT ring.”

Finally, it is extremely important to pay close attention to the use of the word “ONLY.” A
sentence such as “The door will open IF AND ONLY IF both keys are used” is a very strong
statement that means that there is just one way to open the door—with both keys. If the sentence
just said, “The door will open if the key is used,” there may be several other ways to open the
door. But that is not the case when the expression “if and only if” is used.
Remember These Tips When Taking the Logical Reasoning Test

1. In questions with positive lead statements, always choose the only conclusion that can
definitely be drawn from the information given in the paragraph.

2. Remember NOT to use any outside factual information to reach your conclusion.

3. Read the lead-in sentence and the paragraph very carefully. Also, read all the answer
choices before you mark the one you think is correct.

4. Pay special attention whenever the question uses words such as “all,” “some,” or “none.”
Other terms such as “unless” or “except” or “only” are also important. These words help
to define the facts from which you must draw conclusions.

5. Also pay special attention whenever you see a negative prefix such as “non-” or a
negative verb such as “disconnect” or “unfasten.” These may be crucial to understanding
the basic facts in the paragraph.

6. Ignore any advice you may have received in the past about avoiding an answer that
contains the word “all” or the word “none.” These may be signs of an incorrect response
in some tests, but not in this test. You will find these words in both right and wrong
response options.

7. Take the sample test and study the explanation for each of the questions very carefully.
This will help you fine-tune your reasoning on the actual test.

Leave a Comment more...

Test Tips

Section I: Test Taking Tips
1. You will do your best on the test if you stay calm and relaxed. Take a few deep, slow breaths to help you maintain your calm.

2. Pay careful attention to all directions before beginning.

3. Answer the easier questions first. Skip questions you find to be very difficult and come back to them later.

4. For each question, read the entire question and all response options carefully before  deciding upon an answer.

5. If you do not know the answer to a question, eliminate the response options that you know to be incorrect or probably incorrect and then guess from the remaining response options.

6. Your score is based only on the number of questions you answer correctly. You are not penalized for answering questions incorrectly. Therefore, you should answer every question, even questions that you must guess.

7. If you finish before time is up, go back and check your answers.

8. Be sure that you mark your answer sheet correctly. If you have to change an answer,  erase the first answer before marking the new answer. If you skip a question, be sure to answer the next question in the appropriate place on the answer sheet.

9. Ignore any patterns of A’s, B’s, C’s, D’s, or E’s on your answer sheet. These correct answer positions are chosen randomly and there is no way to improve your chances by guessing based on an answer sheet pattern.

10. Take the Spanish Language Proficiency Test if you are proficient in standard Spanish;  otherwise take the Artificial Language Test.

Leave a Comment more...

Looking for something?

Use the form below to search the site:

Still not finding what you're looking for? Drop a comment on a post or contact us so we can take care of it!

Other Law Enforcement Sites

    Archives